NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases MCQs Set 04

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NEET Biology: Human Health and Diseases

Review structured MCQ sets for NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases. Built according to official NEET guidelines, these downloadable questions support daily revision and core concept reinforcement.

Practice Human Health and Diseases MCQs for NEET Biology

Access the complete set of multiple-choice questions for Human Health and Diseases below. This focused format allows students to isolate specific topics for thorough review and uninterrupted practice alongside official NEET textbooks.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Which one of the following is the first line of defence of the body?
(a) Skin and mucous membranes
(b) Neutrophils and monocytes
(c) Fever
(d) Interferon
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Skin and mucous membranes

Explanation:
1. Physical barriers such as skin and mucous linings stop entry of pathogens before any cell or chemical defence is needed.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Skin and mucus: physical barrier.
2. Fever and interferon are later, physiological and cellular defences.

Question 2: An antigen is best described as
(a) a substance that stimulates production of venom
(b) a vaccine only
(c) an agent that stimulates antibody production
(d) a part of the body's defence system
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) an agent that stimulates antibody production

Explanation:
1. An antigen is any foreign molecule that provokes the immune system to make antibodies.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Antigens are foreign, antibodies are made by us.
2. Not every antigen is a vaccine.

Question 3: Which of the following cells is not phagocytic in nature?
(a) Monocyte
(b) Macrophage
(c) Neutrophil
(d) Natural killer cell
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Natural killer cell

Explanation:
1. Monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils engulf microbes. NK cells kill infected or abnormal cells by secreting chemicals that make them burst, not by engulfing them.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Phagocytes: neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages.
2. NK cells are lymphocytes.

Question 4: Cell-mediated immunity is provided by
(a) B-lymphocytes
(b) plasma cells
(c) C-lymphocytes
(d) T-lymphocytes (thymus-derived cells)
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) T-lymphocytes (thymus-derived cells)

Explanation:
1. T-cells, which mature in the thymus, carry out cell-mediated responses such as graft rejection.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. B-cells give humoral immunity.
2. T stands for thymus.

Question 5: A primary lymphoid organ pair is
(a) bone marrow and spleen
(b) spleen and thymus
(c) bone marrow and tonsils
(d) thymus and bone marrow
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) thymus and bone marrow

Explanation:
1. Lymphocytes are produced and mature in the bone marrow and thymus, the primary lymphoid organs. Spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes are secondary.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Primary: origin and maturation.
2. Secondary: antigen contact and response.

Question 6: Which antibody is called the secretory antibody?
(a) IgE
(b) IgA
(c) IgG
(d) IgM
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) IgA

Explanation:
1. IgA is found in mucous secretions, tears, saliva and colostrum.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. IgA guards body surfaces.
2. IgE is linked with allergy.

Question 7: Neutrophils and monocytes are important cells participating in
(a) phagocytosis
(b) perforin production
(c) passive immunity
(d) antibody production
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) phagocytosis

Explanation:
1. They are the main phagocytic white cells of the cellular barrier of innate immunity.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Both engulf and destroy microbes.
2. Antibodies come from plasma cells.

Question 8: At birth, the presence of which antibody indicates an intrauterine infection of the foetus?
(a) IgG
(b) IgD
(c) IgM
(d) IgA
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) IgM

Explanation:
1. IgG crosses the placenta from mother, but IgM does not. IgM found in a newborn must have been made by the foetus itself in response to infection.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. IgG crosses placenta, IgM does not.
2. IgM is the first antibody in a primary response.

Question 9: How many polypeptide chains are present in one antibody molecule?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 4

Explanation:
1. An antibody is H2L2: two heavy and two light chains.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Notation H2L2.
2. Heavy chains are the longer ones.

Question 10: Colostrum, the first milk of the mammary gland, is rich in which immunoglobulin?
(a) IgE
(b) IgM
(c) IgA
(d) IgG
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) IgA

Explanation:
1. Colostrum contains abundant IgA that protects the newborn gut and respiratory surface.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Colostrum gives passive immunity.
2. It is a natural example.

Question 11: An antibody is
(a) a component of blood cells
(b) a secretion of mammalian erythrocytes
(c) a molecule that reacts specifically with an antigen
(d) a white corpuscle that attacks bacteria
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) a molecule that reacts specifically with an antigen

Explanation:
1. Antibodies are protein molecules (immunoglobulins) made by plasma cells that bind a specific antigen.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. They are proteins, not cells.
2. Specificity is the key property.

Question 12: Surgical removal of the thymus of a newborn would result in failure of maturation of
(a) monocytes
(b) B-lymphocytes
(c) T-lymphocytes
(d) basophils
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) T-lymphocytes

Explanation:
1. T-lymphocytes mature in the thymus.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Thymus: T-cells.
2. Bone marrow: B-cells.

Question 13: Vaccination is a part of
(a) treatment
(b) passive immunisation
(c) diagnosis
(d) prophylaxis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) prophylaxis

Explanation:
1. Vaccines are given before infection to prevent disease, so they are a preventive (prophylactic) measure that gives active immunity.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Prophylaxis means prevention.
2. Vaccines give active immunity.

Question 14: The BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against
(a) tuberculosis
(b) typhoid
(c) AIDS
(d) cholera
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) tuberculosis

Explanation:
1. BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin) is a weakened Mycobacterium strain used against tuberculosis.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. BCG: TB.
2. DPT: diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus.

Question 15: An allograft is a graft between
(a) individuals of different species
(b) individuals of the same species
(c) a donor and recipient of different kingdoms
(d) two parts of the same individual
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) individuals of the same species

Explanation:
1. An allograft transfers tissue between genetically different members of the same species. Between species it is a xenograft.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Allo means other.
2. Autograft is within the same body.

Question 16: Cornea transplantation is very popular because
(a) it is easy to preserve
(b) it transplants very easily
(c) it can be easily obtained
(d) the cornea is avascular
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) the cornea is avascular

Explanation:
1. The cornea has no blood vessels, so antibodies and immune cells hardly reach it and rejection is rare.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. No blood supply means little immune attack.
2. Rejection is the main problem in organ grafts.

Question 17: The DPT vaccine is an example of
(a) passive immunity
(b) active immunity
(c) both active and passive immunity
(d) interferon
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) active immunity

Explanation:
1. DPT gives the body weakened or inactivated antigens, so the body makes its own antibodies and memory cells.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Active: own antibodies.
2. Passive: ready-made antibodies.

Question 18: Immunisation is based on the
(a) memory of individuals
(b) pathogenic power
(c) phagocytosis
(d) memory of the immune system
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) memory of the immune system

Explanation:
1. Memory B and T cells formed after the first encounter respond quickly and strongly to the same antigen later.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Secondary response is faster.
2. Memory cells are the basis.

Question 19: Which statement about the hepatitis B vaccine is true?
(a) It is produced by recombinant DNA technology
(b) It is made from the whole killed virus only
(c) It consists of live virus
(d) It is a preformed antibody
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) It is produced by recombinant DNA technology

Explanation:
1. The vaccine contains the viral surface antigen made by genetically engineered yeast, not the whole pathogen.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. It is the first recombinant vaccine.
2. Safe: no whole virus.

Question 20: Congenital diseases are
(a) diseases present from birth
(b) deficiency diseases
(c) diseases spread from one person to another
(d) diseases that occur only later in life
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) diseases present from birth

Explanation:
1. Congenital means present at birth, for example Down syndrome or colour blindness.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Congenital is not the same as infectious.
2. Genetic disease may or may not show at birth.

Question 21: An individual with 45 chromosomes (44 autosomes and a single sex chromosome) has
(a) Down syndrome
(b) Turner syndrome
(c) Klinefelter syndrome
(d) testicular feminisation
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Turner syndrome

Explanation:
1. Turner syndrome is 44 + XO, a monosomy of the sex chromosome, giving sterile females with female dysgenesis.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. XO = Turner.
2. XXY = Klinefelter.

Question 22: A person with long limbs, breast development (gynecomastia) and sterility has the chromosome constitution
(a) XO
(b) XXY
(c) XXO
(d) XXX
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) XXY

Explanation:
1. This is Klinefelter syndrome, 44 + XXY, a male with an extra X chromosome.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. XXY male is sterile.
2. Barr body is present.

Question 23: Klinefelter syndrome is denoted by
(a) 44 + XXY
(b) 44 + XO
(c) 44 + XXX
(d) 44 + YY
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 44 + XXY

Explanation:
1. The extra X gives 47 chromosomes, 44 autosomes plus XXY.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. 47 chromosomes.
2. Small testes, gynecomastia.

Question 24: Widal test is used to detect
(a) pneumonia
(b) malaria
(c) typhoid
(d) cholera
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) typhoid

Explanation:
1. The Widal test detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi in the blood.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Typhoid: Widal.
2. Malaria: blood smear.

Question 25: Which of the following is an infectious disease?
(a) Coronary thrombosis
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Hypertension
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Diphtheria

Explanation:
1. Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae and spreads between people. The others are non-infectious.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Infectious = caused by a pathogen.
2. Others are lifestyle or metabolic disorders.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases

About Human Health and Diseases MCQs for NEET Biology

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FAQs

Where can I access latest NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases MCQs Set 04?

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Are Assertion-Reasoning and Case-Study MCQs included in the Biology NEET material?

Yes, our NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases MCQs Set 04 include the latest type of questions, such as Assertion-Reasoning and Case-based MCQs. 50% of the NEET paper is now competency-based.

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By solving our NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases MCQs Set 04, NEET students can improve their accuracy and speed which is important as objective questions provide a chance to secure 100% marks in the Biology.

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