NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 08

Biology Objective Questions and Answers: Human Health and Disease

Explore reliable objective questions for Human Health and Disease tailored for NEET learners. Utilizing these Biology multiple-choice formats ensures thorough preparation and strengthens problem-solving speed for upcoming school assessments.

Download Human Health and Disease MCQs with Answers

Access the complete set of multiple-choice questions for Human Health and Disease below. This focused format allows students to isolate specific topics for thorough review and uninterrupted practice alongside official NEET textbooks.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Hippocrates and the Indian Ayurvedic system held that the state of body and mind is balanced by
(a) hormones
(b) humors
(c) enzymes
(d) vitamins
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) humors

Explanation:
1. The 'good humor' hypothesis linked health to a balance of body fluids; it was later discarded by William Harvey's work on circulation.

Teacher's Note:
1. Modern ideas link health to balanced diet, hygiene and exercise.

Question 2: Health is maintained by
(a) balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise
(b) medicines only
(c) rest only
(d) vaccination only
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise

Explanation:
1. These three habits support physical, mental and social well-being.

Teacher's Note:
1. Health is also affected by genetic disorders and infections.

Question 3: Disease-causing organisms are called
(a) vectors
(b) carriers
(c) parasites only
(d) pathogens
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) pathogens

Explanation:
1. Pathogens include bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa and helminths.

Teacher's Note:
1. Vectors only carry pathogens.

Question 4: Salmonella typhi is transmitted through
(a) air droplets
(b) mosquito bite
(c) contaminated food and water
(d) blood transfusion only
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) contaminated food and water

Explanation:
1. Typhoid spreads when food or water is contaminated with faeces carrying the bacteria.

Teacher's Note:
1. Sustained high fever of 39 to 40 degrees C is a typical symptom.

Question 5: The confirmatory test for typhoid is
(a) ELISA
(b) Widal test
(c) Mantoux test
(d) Western blot
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Widal test

Explanation:
1. The Widal test detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi.

Teacher's Note:
1. ELISA is used for AIDS.

Question 6: A typhoid carrier who spread the disease for several years was
(a) Mary Mallon (Typhoid Mary)
(b) Mary Curie
(c) Mary Leakey
(d) Mary Hopkins
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Mary Mallon (Typhoid Mary)

Explanation:
1. She was a cook who unknowingly spread typhoid to many people.

Teacher's Note:
1. Carriers show no symptoms but shed pathogens.

Question 7: Pneumonia is caused by the bacteria
(a) Salmonella typhi
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Plasmodium vivax
(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae

Explanation:
1. These bacteria infect the alveoli of the lungs, which get filled with fluid.

Teacher's Note:
1. In severe cases the lips and fingernails turn grey to bluish.

Question 8: Malaria is a ______ disease and its most serious form is caused by
(a) viral; Plasmodium vivax
(b) bacterial; Plasmodium malariae
(c) protozoan; Plasmodium falciparum
(d) fungal; Plasmodium ovale
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) protozoan; Plasmodium falciparum

Explanation:
1. Malignant malaria due to P. falciparum can be fatal.

Teacher's Note:
1. Plasmodium vivax causes benign tertian malaria.

Question 9: The infective stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is
(a) gametocytes
(b) sporozoites
(c) merozoites
(d) trophozoites
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) sporozoites

Explanation:
1. Sporozoites are injected into humans by the bite of an infected female Anopheles.

Teacher's Note:
1. Gametocytes develop in RBCs and are taken up by the mosquito.

Question 10: The toxin released in malaria that causes chill and high fever is
(a) haemozoin
(b) interferon
(c) histamine
(d) aflatoxin
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) haemozoin

Explanation:
1. Haemozoin is released when RBCs rupture, giving recurring fever with chills.

Teacher's Note:
1. The sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in RBCs.

Question 11: In the female Anopheles mosquito, Plasmodium is stored in the
(a) gut only
(b) ovary
(c) malpighian tubules
(d) salivary glands
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) salivary glands

Explanation:
1. Sporozoites reach the salivary glands of the mosquito and are injected when it bites.

Teacher's Note:
1. Fertilisation of gametes occurs in the mosquito gut.

Question 12: The mechanical carrier of Entamoeba histolytica is the
(a) Anopheles mosquito
(b) tsetse fly
(c) house fly
(d) sand fly
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) house fly

Explanation:
1. House flies carry cysts from faeces to food and water.

Teacher's Note:
1. Amoebiasis causes amoebic dysentery.

Question 13: The common round worm Ascaris is a parasite causing symptoms like
(a) chronic inflammation of lymph vessels
(b) internal bleeding, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage
(c) ringworm on skin
(d) fever with pneumonia
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) internal bleeding, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage

Explanation:
1. Ascariasis arises from ingestion of eggs in contaminated food or water; the worms live in the intestine.

Teacher's Note:
1. Wuchereria causes filariasis.

Question 14: The filarial worm that causes chronic inflammation of the lymphatic vessels, usually of the lower limbs, causes
(a) elephantiasis (filariasis)
(b) amoebiasis
(c) ascariasis
(d) ringworm
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) elephantiasis (filariasis)

Explanation:
1. Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi block lymph flow, causing swelling.

Teacher's Note:
1. The vector is the female Culex mosquito.

Question 15: Ringworm is caused by the fungal genera
(a) Candida, Aspergillus and Rhizopus
(b) Entamoeba and Giardia
(c) Rhizopus, Penicillium and Mucor
(d) Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton

Explanation:
1. These fungi infect skin, nails and scalp; dry, scaly lesions with intense itching appear.

Teacher's Note:
1. Heat and moisture help them grow.

Question 16: The dreaded disease completely eradicated from the world is
(a) polio
(b) malaria
(c) smallpox
(d) tuberculosis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) smallpox

Explanation:
1. Smallpox was eradicated through vaccination programmes.

Teacher's Note:
1. It is the only human disease declared eradicated in the textbook view.

Question 17: The innate immunity is
(a) specific and acquired after infection
(b) a non-specific type of defence present at birth
(c) produced only by vaccination
(d) transferred only by antibodies
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) a non-specific type of defence present at birth

Explanation:
1. It consists of physical, physiological, cellular and cytokine barriers.

Teacher's Note:
1. Acquired immunity is pathogen specific.

Question 18: Which of the following forms the cellular barrier of innate immunity?
(a) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes (neutrophils) and monocytes
(b) Skin and mucous membrane
(c) Gastric acid
(d) Saliva
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes (neutrophils) and monocytes

Explanation:
1. Neutrophils, monocytes, natural killer cells and macrophages phagocytose microbes.

Teacher's Note:
1. Skin forms a physical barrier.

Question 19: The protein secreted by virus-infected cells that protects non-infected cells from further viral infection is
(a) histamine
(b) immunoglobulin E
(c) complement
(d) interferon
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) interferon

Explanation:
1. Interferons are cytokines that form the cytokine barrier of innate immunity.

Teacher's Note:
1. Alpha-interferon is also used in cancer therapy.

Question 20: The first encounter of the body with a pathogen results in a low intensity response called the
(a) secondary response
(b) anamnestic response
(c) primary response
(d) allergic response
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) primary response

Explanation:
1. Primary response is of low intensity; secondary (anamnestic) response is highly intensified because of immunological memory.

Teacher's Note:
1. Memory is the basis of vaccination.

Question 21: The antibody molecule is represented by the formula
(a) H4L
(b) H2L2
(c) HL
(d) H2L4
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) H2L2

Explanation:
1. An antibody has two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.

Teacher's Note:
1. IgA, IgM, IgE and IgG are the types.

Question 22: Antibody-mediated (humoral) and cell-mediated immunity are carried out respectively by
(a) B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
(b) T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes
(c) macrophages and neutrophils
(d) plasma cells and basophils
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

Explanation:
1. B cells secrete antibodies into the blood, while T cells help B cells and kill infected cells.

Teacher's Note:
1. Graft rejection is cell mediated.

Question 23: When the host's immune system is exposed to an antigen and produces antibodies, the immunity is called
(a) passive immunity
(b) innate immunity
(c) maternal immunity only
(d) active immunity
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) active immunity

Explanation:
1. Active immunity is slow, takes time to give full response and is long lasting, as in vaccination.

Teacher's Note:
1. Passive immunity uses ready-made antibodies.

Question 24: The yellowish fluid first secreted by the mother that contains IgA antibodies is
(a) lactose
(b) whey
(c) colostrum
(d) plasma
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) colostrum

Explanation:
1. Colostrum protects the infant in the initial days; the foetus also receives IgG across the placenta.

Teacher's Note:
1. These are examples of passive immunity.

Question 25: The principle of vaccination is based on
(a) innate immunity
(b) immunological memory
(c) allergy
(d) autoimmunity
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) immunological memory

Explanation:
1. The weakened or inactive pathogens produce memory B and T cells, giving a quick response on later exposure.

Teacher's Note:
1. Tetanus antitoxin is an example of passive immunisation.

Free study material for Biology

Human Health and Disease Objective Questions & Solutions for NEET Biology

Download Multiple Choice Questions: Human Health and Disease (NEET Biology)

Explore reliable practice questions for Human Health and Disease tailored for NEET Biology learners. Use these multiple-choice formats to evaluate preparedness and strengthen problem-solving skills.

Concept Clarification for Human Health and Disease

Built using the official NCERT book for NEET, these Biology objective sets provide reliable academic guidance. Pair your practice with our recommended NCERT solutions to master optimal problem-solving approaches.

Additional Study Resources for NEET Biology

Explore our broader library of printable assignments, chapter notes, and mock tests designed to support continuous revision and secure higher marks in NEET assessments.

FAQs

Where can I access latest NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 08?

You can get most exhaustive NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 08 for free on StudiesToday.com. These MCQs for NEET Biology are updated for the 2026-27 academic session as per NEET examination standards.

Are Assertion-Reasoning and Case-Study MCQs included in the Biology NEET material?

Yes, our NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 08 include the latest type of questions, such as Assertion-Reasoning and Case-based MCQs. 50% of the NEET paper is now competency-based.

How do practicing Biology MCQs help in scoring full marks in NEET exams?

By solving our NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 08, NEET students can improve their accuracy and speed which is important as objective questions provide a chance to secure 100% marks in the Biology.

Do you provide answers and explanations for NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 08?

Yes, Biology MCQs for NEET have answer key and brief explanations to help students understand logic behind the correct option as its important for 2026 competency-focused NEET exams.

Can I practice these Biology NEET MCQs online?

Yes, you can also access online interactive tests for NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 08 on StudiesToday.com as they provide instant answers and score to help you track your progress in Biology.