NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Set 08

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NEET Biology: Biotechnology Principles and Processes

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Who defined biotechnology as the integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues for products and services?
(a) ICMR
(b) FAO
(c) WHO
(d) European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)

Explanation:
1. The EFB gave this definition.
2. It covers modern and traditional biotechnology.

Teacher's Note:
1. Definitions differ.
2. The EFB one is the broad one.

Question 2: Which techniques of genetic engineering allow us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism?
(a) Mutation breeding
(b) Hybridisation and selection
(c) Tissue culture only
(d) Recombinant DNA, gene cloning and gene transfer
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Recombinant DNA, gene cloning and gene transfer

Explanation:
1. Recombinant DNA technology can isolate a desired gene.
2. It is then cloned and transferred.

Teacher's Note:
1. Classical breeding transfers many genes.
2. r-DNA transfers only the needed gene.

Question 3: The specific DNA sequence responsible for the initiation of replication is the
(a) terminator
(b) origin of replication (ori)
(c) promoter
(d) operator
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) origin of replication (ori)

Explanation:
1. ori is the site where replication begins.
2. A vector must have it.

Teacher's Note:
1. The copy number depends on ori.
2. Plasmid ori controls plasmid number.

Question 4: The technique responsible for making multiple identical copies of a template DNA is
(a) elution
(b) cloning
(c) transformation
(d) electrophoresis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) cloning

Explanation:
1. Cloning makes identical copies of DNA.
2. The copies are called clones.

Teacher's Note:
1. Cloning can be done in vivo or by PCR.
2. PCR is in vitro.

Question 5: When a plasmid carries a cut piece of DNA and transfers it into a host, the plasmid acts as a
(a) vector
(b) template
(c) primer
(d) probe
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) vector

Explanation:
1. A vector carries foreign DNA into the host.
2. Plasmids and bacteriophages are vectors.

Teacher's Note:
1. A vector needs ori, selectable markers and cloning sites.
2. These help in cloning.

Question 6: The enzyme that links the antibiotic-resistance gene with the plasmid vector is
(a) restriction endonuclease
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) reverse transcriptase
(d) DNA ligase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) DNA ligase

Explanation:
1. DNA ligase joins DNA fragments by phosphodiester bonds.
2. It seals the nicks.

Teacher's Note:
1. Ligase is molecular glue.
2. It joins sticky ends.

Question 7: The first restriction endonuclease discovered was
(a) Hind II
(b) Eco RI
(c) Bam HI
(d) Taq I
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Hind II

Explanation:
1. Hind II was isolated first.
2. It always cuts at a particular six base pair sequence.

Teacher's Note:
1. Hind II cuts at specific sequences.
2. Hind II recognises a six-base-pair palindrome.

Question 8: The specific base sequence recognised by a restriction enzyme is known as its
(a) recognition sequence
(b) operator
(c) promoter
(d) terminator
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) recognition sequence

Explanation:
1. The enzyme recognises a specific sequence of six base pairs.
2. It cuts at that site.

Teacher's Note:
1. These sequences are palindromic.
2. They read the same in both strands.

Question 9: More than ___ restriction enzymes have been isolated from over ___ strains of bacteria.
(a) 900; 230
(b) 9000; 2300
(c) 90; 23
(d) 230; 900
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 900; 230

Explanation:
1. Over 900 enzymes have been isolated from over 230 strains.
2. Each recognises a different sequence.

Teacher's Note:
1. Numbers are given in NCERT.
2. They are a standard fact.

Question 10: In the name EcoRI, the letters E, Co, R and I stand respectively for
(a) genus, species, strain, order of isolation
(b) strain, genus, species, order
(c) species, genus, strain, order
(d) order, strain, species, genus
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) genus, species, strain, order of isolation

Explanation:
1. E stands for Escherichia (genus), co for coli (species), R for the strain RY13 and I for the order of isolation.
2. This is how restriction enzymes are named.

Teacher's Note:
1. The first letter is the genus.
2. The next two letters give the species.

Question 11: Restriction enzymes belong to the class of enzymes called
(a) polymerases
(b) transferases
(c) ligases
(d) nucleases
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) nucleases

Explanation:
1. Restriction enzymes cut nucleic acids, so they are nucleases.
2. There are exonucleases and endonucleases.

Teacher's Note:
1. Nucleases break phosphodiester bonds.
2. They are of two types.

Question 12: The nuclease that removes nucleotides from the ends of the DNA is
(a) exonuclease
(b) ligase
(c) helicase
(d) endonuclease
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) exonuclease

Explanation:
1. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends.
2. Endonucleases cut within the DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Restriction enzymes are endonucleases.
2. They cut at specific positions within DNA.

Question 13: Restriction endonucleases recognise which type of nucleotide sequences in DNA?
(a) Repetitive sequences
(b) Poly-A sequences
(c) Palindromic sequences
(d) Random sequences
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Palindromic sequences

Explanation:
1. Palindromic sequences read the same on both strands in the 5' to 3' direction.
2. The enzyme cuts both strands.

Teacher's Note:
1. MALAYALAM is a palindrome in words.
2. In DNA the same applies to base pairs.

Question 14: The recognition sequence of EcoRI is
(a) 5' CTGCAG 3'
(b) 5' GGATCC 3'
(c) 5' AAGCTT 3'
(d) 5' GAATTC 3'
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) 5' GAATTC 3'

Explanation:
1. EcoRI recognises GAATTC and cuts between G and A.
2. It produces sticky ends.

Teacher's Note:
1. BamHI recognises GGATCC.
2. HindIII recognises AAGCTT.

Question 15: A group of letters that form the same word when read both forward and backward, such as MALAYALAM, is similar to a
(a) codon
(b) palindromic sequence of base pairs
(c) cistron
(d) promoter
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) palindromic sequence of base pairs

Explanation:
1. A palindromic sequence reads the same in the 5' to 3' direction on both strands.
2. The word MALAYALAM is the same forwards and backwards.

Teacher's Note:
1. Palindromic sites are recognised by enzymes.
2. They produce cohesive ends.

Question 16: The process of insertion of recombinant DNA into a bacterial cell is called
(a) translation
(b) transduction
(c) transformation
(d) transcription
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) transformation

Explanation:
1. Transformation is the uptake of DNA by a bacterial cell.
2. The cell becomes a recombinant cell.

Teacher's Note:
1. Competent cells take up DNA.
2. Divalent cations help.

Question 17: The technique used to separate DNA fragments is
(a) centrifugation
(b) PCR
(c) chromatography
(d) gel electrophoresis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) gel electrophoresis

Explanation:
1. DNA fragments are separated according to size in an electric field.
2. Smaller fragments move farther.

Teacher's Note:
1. DNA is negatively charged.
2. It moves towards the anode.

Question 18: In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are stained with
(a) safranin
(b) methylene blue
(c) ethidium bromide
(d) iodine
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) ethidium bromide

Explanation:
1. Ethidium bromide stains DNA fragments orange.
2. They are seen in UV light.

Teacher's Note:
1. DNA bands are visible under UV.
2. Ethidium bromide is a carcinogen.

Question 19: The most commonly used matrix for gel electrophoresis is
(a) starch
(b) agar
(c) cellulose
(d) agarose
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) agarose

Explanation:
1. Agarose is a natural polymer from sea weeds.
2. It forms the gel.

Teacher's Note:
1. The pore size is related to the agarose concentration.
2. Agarose is extracted from sea weeds.

Question 20: The process used to check the progression of the restriction enzyme digestion is
(a) blotting
(b) PCR
(c) agarose gel electrophoresis
(d) ELISA
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) agarose gel electrophoresis

Explanation:
1. Digested DNA is run on a gel.
2. Bands show whether it is cut.

Teacher's Note:
1. Gel electrophoresis checks the digestion.
2. Different fragment sizes show up as bands.

Question 21: The type of substrate that produces colour for differentiating recombinant and non-recombinant colonies is a
(a) radioactive substrate
(b) sulphur substrate
(c) fluorescent substrate
(d) chromogenic substrate
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) chromogenic substrate

Explanation:
1. Beta-galactosidase acts on a chromogenic substrate to give blue colonies.
2. Recombinants lack this activity and are colourless.

Teacher's Note:
1. This is insertional inactivation.
2. It is used as a selection method.

Question 22: After insertional inactivation of the beta-galactosidase gene, the colonies that do not produce any colour are the
(a) dead colonies
(b) non-recombinant colonies
(c) recombinant colonies
(d) wild type colonies
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) recombinant colonies

Explanation:
1. The insert disrupts the gene for the enzyme.
2. So the recombinant colonies give no blue colour.

Teacher's Note:
1. Non-recombinants give blue colonies.
2. The enzyme remains functional there.

Question 23: Which of the following statements is NOT true?
(a) Uptake of DNA during transformation is an active process
(b) In some r-DNA vectors the foreign DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of beta-galactosidase
(c) A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for obtaining the desired product
(d) In insertional inactivation the alien gene is introduced into the ori sequence
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) In insertional inactivation the alien gene is introduced into the ori sequence

Explanation:
1. In insertional inactivation, the alien gene is inserted into a marker gene such as lacZ, not into ori.
2. The other statements are true.

Teacher's Note:
1. Inserting in ori would stop replication.
2. The marker gene is the target.

Question 24: A protein encoded by a gene expressed in a heterologous host is called a
(a) native protein
(b) structural protein
(c) fusion protein only
(d) recombinant protein
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) recombinant protein

Explanation:
1. Expression of a gene in a foreign host gives a recombinant protein.
2. Insulin from E. coli is an example.

Teacher's Note:
1. The host is heterologous.
2. The gene is foreign.

Question 25: A bacterial cell that is able to take up plasmid DNA is called a
(a) mutant cell
(b) competent cell
(c) transformed cell
(d) vector cell
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) competent cell

Explanation:
1. Competent cells can take up foreign DNA.
2. Calcium treatment makes them competent.

Teacher's Note:
1. Competence is induced.
2. Heat shock helps.

Question 26: In DNA isolation, the chemical used for the precipitation of DNA is
(a) NaCl
(b) chilled ethanol
(c) phenol
(d) chloroform
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) chilled ethanol

Explanation:
1. Chilled ethanol precipitates DNA as fine threads.
2. These are spooled out.

Teacher's Note:
1. DNA is insoluble in ethanol.
2. It appears as white threads.

Question 27: The correct sequence of steps in each cycle of PCR is
(a) denaturation, annealing of primers, extension
(b) annealing, denaturation, extension
(c) denaturation, extension, annealing
(d) extension, denaturation, annealing
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) denaturation, annealing of primers, extension

Explanation:
1. Heat denatures the DNA, primers anneal and Taq polymerase extends them.
2. This is one cycle.

Teacher's Note:
1. About 30 cycles give a billion copies.
2. Primers are needed on both strands.

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Biotechnology Principles and Processes Objective Questions & Solutions for NEET Biology

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