NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Set 07

Download NEET MCQs for NEET Biology: Biotechnology Principles and Processes

Review structured MCQ sets for NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes. Built according to official NEET guidelines, these downloadable questions support daily revision and core concept reinforcement.

Chapter-wise Objective Questions: Biotechnology Principles and Processes

Navigate directly to the 50 objective questions for Biotechnology Principles and Processes using the digital viewer below. Each practice set includes verified answer keys, allowing students to instantly cross-check their work and identify areas requiring further revision.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: The first restriction endonuclease discovered was:
(a) EcoRI
(b) SmaI
(c) BamHI
(d) HindII
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) HindII

Explanation:
1. HindII was the first restriction endonuclease isolated, and it always cuts at a specific six base pair sequence.
2. It was reported by Smith and Wilcox.

Teacher's Note:
1. EcoRI was isolated later.

Question 2: The vector pBR322 has how many selectable markers?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Two

Explanation:
1. pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes, ampR and tetR.
2. They act as the two selectable markers.

Teacher's Note:
1. Selectable markers help identify transformants.

Question 3: When isolating genetic material, RNA can be removed by treatment with:
(a) Protease
(b) Chitinase
(c) Ribonuclease
(d) Deoxyribonuclease
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Ribonuclease

Explanation:
1. Ribonuclease degrades RNA.
2. Protease removes proteins and deoxyribonuclease would degrade DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Purified DNA is precipitated by chilled ethanol.

Question 4: Which is called the 'knife' of DNA?
(a) DNA ligase
(b) Restriction endonuclease
(c) Exonuclease
(d) Peptidase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Restriction endonuclease

Explanation:
1. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific sites, like molecular scissors or knives.
2. Ligase is the glue.

Teacher's Note:
1. They were discovered in bacteria.

Question 5: A large vessel in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products using microbial, plant, animal or human cells is:
(a) Biotank
(b) Biovessel
(c) Bioreactor
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Bioreactor

Explanation:
1. A bioreactor is a vessel for converting raw materials to products by cells or enzymes.
2. Optimal conditions are maintained.

Teacher's Note:
1. Large volumes are processed.

Question 6: Which is NOT required in PCR?
(a) Oligonucleotide primers
(b) DNA template
(c) Taq polymerase
(d) Helicase enzyme
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Helicase enzyme

Explanation:
1. PCR needs template DNA, primers, Taq polymerase and nucleotides.
2. Strand separation is done by heat, so helicase is not required.

Teacher's Note:
1. Taq polymerase is thermostable.

Question 7: The enzymes which remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA are:
(a) Exonucleases
(b) Endonucleases
(c) Cellulases
(d) Hydrolases
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Exonucleases

Explanation:
1. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends.
2. Endonucleases cut inside DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Both are nucleases.

Question 8: When recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme beta-galactosidase and this inactivates the gene, it is called:
(a) Insert inactivation
(b) Insertional inactivation
(c) Insertional activation
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Insertional inactivation

Explanation:
1. Inactivation of a gene by insertion of a foreign DNA within it is insertional inactivation.
2. It is used for selecting recombinants.

Teacher's Note:
1. The enzyme is beta-galactosidase.

Question 9: A group of letters that forms the same word when read both forward and backward is called:
(a) Palindrome
(b) Same words
(c) Opposite words
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Palindrome

Explanation:
1. This is a palindrome, like MALAYALAM.
2. In DNA, a palindrome reads the same in the 5' to 3' direction on both strands.

Teacher's Note:
1. Restriction sites are palindromic.

Question 10: Which type of ends are produced by EcoRI?
(a) Blunt ends
(b) Sticky ends
(c) Both blunt and sticky ends
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Sticky ends

Explanation:
1. EcoRI cuts the strands at different points to give single-stranded overhangs.
2. These are sticky ends.

Teacher's Note:
1. Sticky ends help ligase action.

Question 11: The sequence responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA is:
(a) Coding sequence
(b) Promoter sequence
(c) Terminator sequence
(d) Ori
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Ori

Explanation:
1. Ori (origin of replication) decides the copy number.
2. Promoter and terminator control transcription.

Teacher's Note:
1. Ori is also needed to start replication.

Question 12: You have three copies of a particular DNA molecule. Which technique would you use to make more copies?
(a) Gel electrophoresis
(b) Sequencing
(c) PCR
(d) Restriction fragment analysis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) PCR

Explanation:
1. PCR amplifies even tiny amounts of DNA.
2. The other techniques only analyse DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Each cycle doubles the DNA copies.

Question 13: Which is the best way to determine paternity?
(a) Gene counting
(b) Chromosome counting
(c) DNA fingerprinting
(d) Protein analysis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) DNA fingerprinting

Explanation:
1. DNA fingerprinting compares VNTR patterns.
2. The child's bands match those of the parents.

Teacher's Note:
1. VNTRs are inherited.

Question 14: The Ti plasmid is present in:
(a) E. coli
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Agrobacterium orifaciens
(d) Vibrio cholerae
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Explanation:
1. The tumour-inducing (Ti) plasmid is found in Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
2. It causes crown gall disease.

Teacher's Note:
1. It is used for gene transfer to dicot plants.

Question 15: Apart from the DNA in the bacterial nucleoid, there is a circular extra-chromosomal DNA in a bacterial cell called:
(a) Plasmid
(b) Mesosomes
(c) Chromosome
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Plasmid

Explanation:
1. Extra-chromosomal circular DNA in bacteria is a plasmid.
2. Mesosomes are membrane folds.

Teacher's Note:
1. Plasmids may have 1 to many copies.

Question 16: DNA cannot pass through a cell membrane as it is:
(a) Hydrophilic
(b) Hydrophobic
(c) Lipophilic
(d) All the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Hydrophilic

Explanation:
1. DNA is a large, charged, hydrophilic molecule.
2. It cannot cross the lipid membrane without help.

Teacher's Note:
1. Cells are therefore made competent.

Question 17: Which type of bioreactor is usually cylindrical or has a curved base to facilitate mixing of the contents?
(a) Sparged tank bioreactor
(b) Stirred tank bioreactor
(c) Both sparged and stirred tank
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Stirred tank bioreactor

Explanation:
1. The stirred-tank bioreactor is cylindrical or has a curved base.
2. This helps mixing of contents.

Teacher's Note:
1. Stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability.

Question 18: The two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E. coli were isolated in 1963. One cut DNA, while the other:
(a) Added a propyl group to DNA
(b) Added an ethyl group to DNA
(c) Added a methyl group to DNA
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Added a methyl group to DNA

Explanation:
1. One enzyme was a restriction endonuclease and the other added methyl groups to DNA.
2. Methylation protects the host's own DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. This led to the name restriction enzymes.

Question 19: In PCR technology, a primer is a:
(a) Small chemically synthesised oligonucleotide complementary to a region of DNA
(b) Large chemically synthesised oligonucleotide identical to a region of DNA
(c) Small segment of RNA
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Small chemically synthesised oligonucleotide complementary to a region of DNA

Explanation:
1. Primers are short, chemically synthesised oligonucleotides.
2. They are complementary to regions of the template DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Primers are used in two sets.

Question 20: If a protein-encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, the protein is known as:
(a) Recombinant gene
(b) Recombinant protein
(c) Selectable marker
(d) Homogenous protein
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Recombinant protein

Explanation:
1. A protein produced from a foreign gene in a heterologous host is a recombinant protein.
2. A gene is not a protein.

Teacher's Note:
1. Insulin from E. coli is an example.

Question 21: Which enzyme is used in the PCR technique?
(a) Thermostable DNA polymerase
(b) Thermostable RNA polymerase
(c) Thermostable ligase
(d) Thermostable vector
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Thermostable DNA polymerase

Explanation:
1. PCR uses thermostable DNA polymerase such as Taq.
2. Vector is not an enzyme.

Teacher's Note:
1. It is not denatured at 94 degrees C.

Question 22: If the plasmid in a bacterium has no insert, the colonies produce:
(a) Blue colour in the presence of X-gal
(b) No colour in the presence of X-gal
(c) Blue colour in the absence of X-gal
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Blue colour in the presence of X-gal

Explanation:
1. Without an insert beta-galactosidase is active.
2. In the presence of X-gal (chromogenic substrate) it gives blue colonies.

Teacher's Note:
1. X-gal is needed for colour.

Question 23: Which is used to deliver the desirable gene into an animal cell?
(a) Disarmed retrovirus
(b) Disarmed Agrobacterium
(c) Disarmed E. coli
(d) Disarmed plant pathogen
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Disarmed retrovirus

Explanation:
1. Disarmed retroviruses are used as vectors in animals.
2. Agrobacterium is used for dicot plants.

Teacher's Note:
1. Disarmed means pathogenic genes are removed.

Question 24: The normal E. coli cell carries resistance genes against:
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Tetracycline
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) None of the above

Explanation:
1. Normal E. coli is sensitive to ampicillin, chloramphenicol and tetracycline.
2. Resistance genes are present only in the engineered plasmids like pBR322.

Teacher's Note:
1. Vectors provide the selectable markers.

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Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes

About Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs for NEET Biology

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