NEET Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQs Set 06

Biology Objective Questions and Answers: Biotechnology Principles and Processes

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: The first letter of the name of a restriction endonuclease comes from the:
(a) Genus of the organism
(b) Species of the organism
(c) Family of the organism
(d) Class of the organism
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Genus of the organism

Explanation:
1. In EcoRI, E stands for the genus Escherichia.
2. The next two letters come from the species name (co from coli).

Teacher's Note:
1. R is the strain and I is the order of isolation.

Question 2: The autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA of bacteria is:
(a) Plastid
(b) Nucleus
(c) Plasmid
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Plasmid

Explanation:
1. Plasmids are small circular DNA molecules that replicate independently of the chromosome.
2. They are used as vectors.

Teacher's Note:
1. pBR322 is a plasmid vector.

Question 3: The specific DNA sequence in a chromosome responsible for initiation of replication is:
(a) Cloning region
(b) Termination region
(c) Initiation region
(d) Origin of replication
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Origin of replication

Explanation:
1. The origin of replication (ori) is where replication begins.
2. It also controls the copy number of linked DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. A foreign DNA needs ori to replicate in a host.

Question 4: Which type of reproduction preserves the genetic information?
(a) Asexual reproduction
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Both asexual and sexual
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Asexual reproduction

Explanation:
1. Asexual reproduction gives clones that retain the parent's genetic information.
2. Sexual reproduction mixes genes by recombination.

Teacher's Note:
1. Clones are genetically identical.

Question 5: Taq polymerase is used in the polymerase chain reaction because:
(a) It becomes inactive at high temperature
(b) It makes other enzymes active at high temperature
(c) It remains active during the high temperature of denaturation
(d) It is obtained from a thermostable virus
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) It remains active during the high temperature of denaturation

Explanation:
1. Taq polymerase comes from Thermus aquaticus.
2. It remains active at the high temperatures used for denaturation of DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. It is thermostable.

Question 6: The vessels in which large volumes of culture can be processed are:
(a) Bioreactors
(b) Biovessels
(c) Biocontainers
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Bioreactors

Explanation:
1. Bioreactors can process 100-1000 litres of culture.
2. The other names are not standard terms.

Teacher's Note:
1. They provide optimum conditions like temperature, pH and oxygen.

Question 7: Which enzyme is known as 'genetic glue'?
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Alkaline phosphatase
(c) DNA ligase
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) DNA ligase

Explanation:
1. DNA ligase joins DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds.
2. It is therefore the genetic glue.

Teacher's Note:
1. Restriction enzymes are the molecular scissors.

Question 8: Small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides complementary to regions of DNA used in PCR are:
(a) Primers
(b) Dimers
(c) Small strands
(d) Large fragments
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Primers

Explanation:
1. Two sets of primers are used in PCR.
2. They anneal to the DNA template and start synthesis.

Teacher's Note:
1. Primers provide a free 3' OH end.

Question 9: Agarose, the most common matrix used in gel electrophoresis, is extracted from:
(a) An animal
(b) A fungus
(c) Sea weeds
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Sea weeds

Explanation:
1. Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds.
2. It forms the gel for sieving DNA fragments.

Teacher's Note:
1. DNA is negatively charged and moves to the anode.

Question 10: To isolate DNA from plant cells we have to break the cell wall. This is done by:
(a) Lysozyme
(b) Cellulase
(c) Chitinase
(d) Invertase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Cellulase

Explanation:
1. Plant cell wall is made of cellulose and is digested by cellulase.
2. Lysozyme is for bacteria and chitinase for fungi.

Teacher's Note:
1. Bacterial cells need lysozyme.

Question 11: Agrobacterium tumefaciens transforms normal plant cells into tumour cells. Similarly, in animals normal cells are transformed into cancerous cells by:
(a) Retroviruses
(b) DNA viruses
(c) Ribo viruses
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Retroviruses

Explanation:
1. Retroviruses can transform normal animal cells into cancerous cells.
2. Disarmed retroviruses are used as vectors in animals.

Teacher's Note:
1. The analogy is why disarmed forms are used.

Question 12: If a bacterium has no insert in its plasmid, in the presence of a chromogenic substrate it gives:
(a) Red colonies
(b) Colourless colonies
(c) Blue colonies
(d) Green colonies
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Blue colonies

Explanation:
1. Non-recombinants have active beta-galactosidase.
2. It hydrolyses the chromogenic substrate to give blue colonies.

Teacher's Note:
1. Recombinants give white colonies.

Question 13: To make cells competent to take up DNA, a heat shock is given. The temperature of the shock is:
(a) 30 degrees C
(b) 42 degrees C
(c) 60 degrees C
(d) 90 degrees C
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 42 degrees C

Explanation:
1. Cells are incubated with DNA on ice, then placed at 42 degrees C briefly, and then put back on ice.
2. This makes bacteria take up recombinant DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Divalent cations like calcium help the DNA uptake.

Question 14: In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragments are forced to move through the medium towards the:
(a) Anode
(b) Cathode
(c) Both anode and cathode
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Anode

Explanation:
1. DNA is negatively charged because of its phosphate groups.
2. It moves towards the positive electrode, the anode.

Teacher's Note:
1. Smaller fragments move farther.

Question 15: Which is NOT a basic step in genetically modifying an organism?
(a) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
(b) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
(c) Introduction of unidentified DNA into the host
(d) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer to its progeny
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Introduction of unidentified DNA into the host

Explanation:
1. The identified DNA with a desired gene is introduced.
2. Introducing unidentified DNA is not a step in genetic modification.

Teacher's Note:
1. These steps are the basis of rDNA technology.

Question 16: The most commonly used bioreactors are of:
(a) Simple stirring type
(b) Sparged stirring type
(c) Both simple stirring and sparged stirring types
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Both simple stirring and sparged stirring types

Explanation:
1. Stirred-tank bioreactors are the most common.
2. They may be simple stirring or sparged types.

Teacher's Note:
1. Sparging bubbles sterile air.

Question 17: EcoRI recognises the palindromic sequence:
(a) 5'-GGGCCC-3' / 3'-CCCGGG-5'
(b) 5'-GAATTC-3' / 3'-CTTAAG-5'
(c) 5'-AAGCTT-3' / 3'-TTCGAA-5'
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 5'-GAATTC-3' / 3'-CTTAAG-5'

Explanation:
1. EcoRI cuts between G and A in 5'-GAATTC-3'.
2. The complementary strand is 3'-CTTAAG-5', which reads the same in the 5' to 3' direction.

Teacher's Note:
1. AAGCTT is the site of HindIII.

Question 18: The enzymes isolated in 1963 responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E. coli were:
(a) DNA ligases
(b) Alkaline phosphatases
(c) DNA polymerases
(d) Restriction endonucleases
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Restriction endonucleases

Explanation:
1. Two enzymes in E. coli restricted bacteriophage growth.
2. One was a restriction endonuclease which cut DNA and the other added a methyl group.

Teacher's Note:
1. They led to restriction enzyme technology.

Question 19: The vector commonly used to transfer a foreign gene into a crop plant is:
(a) Plasmids of Salmonella
(b) Lambda bacteriophage vector
(c) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Explanation:
1. The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens transfers T-DNA into plant cells.
2. It is disarmed and used as a cloning vector.

Teacher's Note:
1. Salmonella plasmid was used in the first rDNA experiment.

Question 20: A definition of biotechnology that encompasses both the traditional and modern views was given by:
(a) European Forum on Biotechnology
(b) European Focus on Biotechnology
(c) European Federation of Biotechnology
(d) European Centre of Biotechnology
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) European Federation of Biotechnology

Explanation:
1. The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) gave the definition.
2. It includes traditional processes and gene technology.

Teacher's Note:
1. It says biotechnology is the integration of natural science and organisms.

Question 21: To denature the DNA template in PCR it is heated to:
(a) 70 degrees C
(b) 54 degrees C
(c) 80 degrees C
(d) 94 degrees C
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) 94 degrees C

Explanation:
1. Denaturation is at about 94 degrees C.
2. Annealing is at about 54 degrees C and extension at about 72 degrees C.

Teacher's Note:
1. Each cycle has three steps.

Question 22: Roman numbers following the names of restriction endonucleases indicate:
(a) The order in which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria
(b) The strain of bacteria
(c) The order in which the genus is taken to isolate the enzyme
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) The order in which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria

Explanation:
1. In EcoRI, the Roman number I shows it was the first enzyme isolated from the strain.
2. The R is the strain.

Teacher's Note:
1. HindII and HindIII are from the same bacterium.

Question 23: Alternative selectable markers were developed to differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of:
(a) The ability to separate them according to size
(b) The ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate
(c) The ability to not produce colour
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) The ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate

Explanation:
1. Recombinants and non-recombinants are differentiated by colour production in a chromogenic substrate.
2. This replaced antibiotic selection.

Teacher's Note:
1. It is based on insertional inactivation.

Question 24: The first recombinant DNA was made by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in:
(a) 1968
(b) 1970
(c) 1972
(d) 1974
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 1972

Explanation:
1. Cohen and Boyer constructed the first recombinant DNA in 1972.
2. They used a plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.

Teacher's Note:
1. It marked the beginning of genetic engineering.

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