NEET Biology Biotechnology MCQs Set 02

Practice MCQs for NEET Biology Biotechnology

Review structured MCQ sets for NEET Biology Biotechnology. Built according to official NEET guidelines, these downloadable questions support daily revision and core concept reinforcement.

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Access the complete set of multiple-choice questions for Biotechnology below. This focused format allows students to isolate specific topics for thorough review and uninterrupted practice alongside official NEET textbooks.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Electroporation involves
(a) fast passage of food through phloem pores
(b) opening stomata at night
(c) making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs
(d) purifying proteins
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) making transient pores in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs

Explanation:
1. A brief electric pulse opens temporary pores in the membrane so that DNA can enter the cell.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Vectorless transfer.
2. Pores reseal.

Question 2: Which restriction enzyme produces blunt ends?
(a) BamHI
(b) EcoRI
(c) HaeIII
(d) all of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) HaeIII

Explanation:
1. HaeIII cuts GG|CC symmetrically, leaving blunt ends. BamHI and EcoRI leave sticky (staggered) ends.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Blunt: cut in the middle.
2. Sticky: staggered cut.

Question 3: A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding methyl groups in order to
(a) clone its DNA
(b) transcribe many genes at once
(c) turn its genes on
(d) protect its DNA from its own restriction enzymes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) protect its DNA from its own restriction enzymes

Explanation:
1. Methylation of the recognition site stops the bacterium's own restriction enzyme from cutting its DNA.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Methylase partners restriction enzyme.
2. Self vs non-self.

Question 4: DNA ligase is the enzyme that
(a) splits DNA into small pieces
(b) joins DNA fragments
(c) denatures DNA
(d) synthesises DNA
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) joins DNA fragments

Explanation:
1. Ligase forms phosphodiester bonds, sealing nicks and joining fragments.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Molecular glue.
2. Works with sticky ends.

Question 5: A suitable vector for gene cloning in higher organisms is
(a) baculovirus
(b) retrovirus
(c) Salmonella typhimurium
(d) Neurospora crassa
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) retrovirus

Explanation:
1. Disarmed retroviruses can integrate genes into the genome of animal cells.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Used in gene therapy.
2. Integrates DNA.

Question 6: The three steps of PCR in correct order are
(a) denaturation, annealing, extension
(b) extension, annealing, denaturation
(c) annealing, extension, denaturation
(d) denaturation, extension, annealing
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) denaturation, annealing, extension

Explanation:
1. Heat separates strands, primers anneal, and Taq polymerase extends them.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. D-A-E.
2. Repeated 30 times.

Question 7: The thermostable enzymes Taq and Pfu isolated from thermophilic bacteria are
(a) RNA polymerases
(b) DNA polymerases
(c) restriction endonucleases
(d) DNA ligases
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) DNA polymerases

Explanation:
1. They are DNA polymerases that withstand the heat of PCR.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Thermus aquaticus: Taq.
2. Pyrococcus furiosus: Pfu.

Question 8: Cohen and Boyer constructed the first recombinant DNA by cutting an antibiotic resistance gene from a plasmid in the year
(a) 1962
(b) 1965
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 1972

Explanation:
1. In 1972 Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer made the first recombinant DNA using a restriction enzyme and ligase.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. 1972 landmark.
2. Plasmid and antibiotic resistance gene.

Question 9: EcoRI cuts DNA between G and A only when the sequence is
(a) GATATC
(b) GAATTC
(c) GATTCC
(d) GAACTT
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) GAATTC

Explanation:
1. EcoRI recognises the palindrome GAATTC and cuts between G and A on each strand.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Palindrome: reads same 5' to 3' on both strands.
2. Gives sticky ends.

Question 10: For a DNA to function as a cloning vector, the most essential requirement is
(a) multiple restriction sites
(b) several selectable markers
(c) circular nature
(d) an origin of replication (ori)
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) an origin of replication (ori)

Explanation:
1. Without ori the vector cannot replicate in the host, so the insert would not be copied.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Ori controls copy number.
2. Others are desirable.

Question 11: The stickiness of DNA ends facilitates the action of
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) restriction endonuclease
(d) alkaline phosphatase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) DNA ligase

Explanation:
1. Complementary sticky ends hold fragments together by base pairing, so ligase can seal them.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Sticky ends anneal.
2. Ligase forms the bond.

Question 12: An antibiotic resistance gene of a plasmid that is inactivated by insertion of alien DNA helps in the selection of
(a) transformants
(b) recombinants
(c) non-transformants
(d) non-recombinants
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) recombinants

Explanation:
1. Insertional inactivation tells recombinants (which lose the resistance) from non-recombinants.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Insert breaks the marker gene.
2. Replica plating.

Question 13: In EcoRI, the letter R stands for
(a) strain
(b) species
(c) genus
(d) order
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) strain

Explanation:
1. E = Escherichia (genus), co = coli (species), R = strain RY13, I = order of discovery.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Name decoding.
2. Roman numeral: order.

Question 14: In insertional inactivation, which enzyme is inactivated and used for colour selection?
(a) transacetylase
(b) permease
(c) beta-galactosidase
(d) Taq polymerase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) beta-galactosidase

Explanation:
1. Insertion of DNA into lacZ destroys beta-galactosidase, so recombinant colonies stay colourless (white) and non-recombinant ones are blue.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Blue-white screening.
2. Chromogenic substrate.

Question 15: In the presence of a chromogenic substrate, recombinant bacteria in blue-white screening give
(a) red colonies
(b) colourless colonies
(c) blue colonies
(d) green colonies
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) colourless colonies

Explanation:
1. Recombinants lack functional beta-galactosidase and cannot make the blue product.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Non-recombinants are blue.
2. Insert in lacZ.

Question 16: Which of the following is not required in PCR?
(a) DNA primer
(b) DNA template
(c) RNA primer
(d) Taq polymerase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) RNA primer

Explanation:
1. PCR uses synthetic DNA primers, not RNA primers.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Needs dNTPs, buffer.
2. Taq adds nucleotides.

Question 17: The substrate for a restriction enzyme is
(a) single-stranded RNA
(b) protein
(c) double-stranded DNA
(d) single-stranded DNA
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) double-stranded DNA

Explanation:
1. Restriction endonucleases recognise palindromic sites in double-stranded DNA.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Two strands cut.
2. Not RNA.

Question 18: In recombinant DNA technology the term vector refers to
(a) the enzyme that cuts DNA
(b) the sticky end of a DNA fragment
(c) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell
(d) a DNA probe
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell

Explanation:
1. A vector carries and replicates the gene of interest in the host.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Plasmid or phage.
2. Needs ori.

Question 19: The pBR322 plasmid, commonly used in cloning, is
(a) an original bacterial plasmid
(b) a modified (engineered) bacterial plasmid
(c) a viral genome
(d) a transposon
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) a modified (engineered) bacterial plasmid

Explanation:
1. pBR322 was built from natural plasmids and has amp and tet resistance genes and unique restriction sites.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. p = plasmid, BR = Bolivar and Rodriguez.
2. 322 = number.

Question 20: The proteins from cryIAc and cryIIAb genes of Bacillus thuringiensis control
(a) bollworms
(b) roundworms
(c) moths
(d) fruit flies
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) bollworms

Explanation:
1. These Cry proteins kill cotton bollworms; cryIAb controls corn borer.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Bt cotton.
2. Cry proteins are specific.

Question 21: Transgenic golden rice has increased content of
(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin B1
(c) vitamin C
(d) vitamin D
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) vitamin A

Explanation:
1. It makes beta-carotene (provitamin A) in the grain.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Helps prevent night blindness.
2. Transgenes from daffodil and bacteria.

Question 22: During the processing of proinsulin into mature insulin
(a) C-peptide is added
(b) C-peptide is removed
(c) B-peptide is added
(d) B-peptide is removed
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) C-peptide is removed

Explanation:
1. Human proinsulin has A, B and C peptides; removing C leaves chains A and B joined by disulphide bonds.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Mature insulin: A and B chains.
2. Humulin: made in E. coli.

Question 23: A genetically engineered bacterium used to clear oil spills is
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Pseudomonas putida
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Pseudomonas putida

Explanation:
1. Anand Chakrabarty's 'superbug' Pseudomonas putida degrades hydrocarbons.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Bioremediation.
2. Multiple plasmids combined.

Question 24: The first transgenic plant was
(a) potato
(b) tomato
(c) tobacco
(d) maize
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) tobacco

Explanation:
1. Transgenic tobacco, made in 1983, was the first.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Flavr Savr: first GM food.
2. Tobacco is a model plant.

Question 25: Which of these is associated with risks of GM food?
(a) toxicity
(b) allergic reactions
(c) antibiotic resistance in gut microbes
(d) all of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) all of these

Explanation:
1. Possible risks include toxins, allergies and spread of antibiotic resistance genes.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. GEAC regulates GM crops.
2. Biosafety assessment is needed.

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