NEET Biology Biotechnology MCQs Set 01

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NEET Biology: Biotechnology

Review structured MCQ sets for NEET Biology Biotechnology. Built according to official NEET guidelines, these downloadable questions support daily revision and core concept reinforcement.

Practice Biotechnology MCQs for NEET Biology

View or download the dedicated Biotechnology MCQ resource below. Practicing these 50 objective questions regularly builds familiarity with standard exam patterns and helps secure higher marks in final Biology evaluations.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic engineering for
(a) DNA mapping
(b) DNA modification
(c) gene transfer
(d) DNA fingerprinting
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) gene transfer

Explanation:
1. Its Ti plasmid transfers T-DNA into plant cells, so it serves as a natural vector for gene transfer into plants.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Natural genetic engineer of plants.
2. Causes crown gall.

Question 2: The biologically functional gene for tyrosine tRNA of E. coli synthesised by Khorana in 1979 had
(a) 333 nucleotide pairs
(b) 312 nucleotide pairs
(c) 77 nucleotide pairs
(d) 207 nucleotide pairs
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) 207 nucleotide pairs

Explanation:
1. Khorana's group chemically synthesised the 207 base pair tRNA gene including its promoter and terminator.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. First artificial gene.
2. Khorana also cracked the genetic code.

Question 3: Who isolated the first restriction endonuclease?
(a) Temin and Baltimore
(b) Sanger
(c) Hamilton Smith
(d) Paul Berg
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Hamilton Smith

Explanation:
1. Hamilton Smith isolated HindII in 1970; Arber had earlier predicted such enzymes.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Smith: restriction enzyme.
2. Berg: first recombinant DNA.

Question 4: Genetic engineering is
(a) the study of extranuclear genes
(b) manipulation of genes by artificial methods
(c) manipulation of RNA only
(d) manipulation of enzymes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) manipulation of genes by artificial methods

Explanation:
1. It alters the genetic makeup of organisms by cutting, joining and transferring genes.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Also called recombinant DNA technology.
2. Genes are moved between organisms.

Question 5: The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used for
(a) DNA identification
(b) DNA repair
(c) DNA amplification
(d) cleaving DNA
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) DNA amplification

Explanation:
1. PCR makes millions of copies of a chosen DNA segment in a short time.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Invented by Kary Mullis.
2. Needs primers and Taq polymerase.

Question 6: Which structure is involved in genetic engineering?
(a) plastid
(b) plasmid
(c) codon
(d) none of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) plasmid

Explanation:
1. Plasmids are small circular DNA molecules in bacteria used as vectors.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Autonomously replicating.
2. Carry antibiotic resistance genes.

Question 7: Which of the following is an example of a chemical scissor?
(a) EcoRI
(b) HindIII
(c) BamHI
(d) all of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) all of these

Explanation:
1. All are restriction endonucleases, which cut DNA at specific sequences.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Restriction enzymes = molecular scissors.
2. Named from the source bacterium.

Question 8: Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering because they
(a) degrade harmful proteins
(b) join DNA fragments
(c) cut DNA at variable sites
(d) cut DNA at specific base sequences
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) cut DNA at specific base sequences

Explanation:
1. Each enzyme recognises a specific palindromic sequence and cuts there, giving defined fragments.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Specific recognition sites.
2. Ligase joins.

Question 9: When the genotype of an organism is improved by addition of a foreign gene, the process is called
(a) tissue culture
(b) genetic diversity
(c) genetic engineering
(d) plastic surgery
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) genetic engineering

Explanation:
1. Adding a foreign gene to alter the genotype is genetic engineering.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Transgene.
2. Product: GMO.

Question 10: A genetically manipulated organism carrying one or more inserted genes of another species is called
(a) transposon
(b) gene expression
(c) transgenic organism
(d) retroposon
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) transgenic organism

Explanation:
1. Organisms with foreign genes in their genome are transgenic.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Examples: Bt cotton, Rosie the cow.
2. GM organism.

Question 11: Which vector is commonly used to transfer genes into crop plants?
(a) plasmids of Bacillus subtilis
(b) bacteriophages
(c) Ti plasmids of Agrobacterium
(d) E. coli phages
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Ti plasmids of Agrobacterium

Explanation:
1. Disarmed Ti plasmids carry the gene of interest into plant cells.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. T-DNA integrates into the plant genome.
2. Disarmed: no tumour genes.

Question 12: The tumour-inducing capacity of Agrobacterium tumefaciens lies in a large extrachromosomal plasmid called
(a) Ti plasmid
(b) Ri plasmid
(c) lambda phage
(d) pBR322
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Ti plasmid

Explanation:
1. Ti means tumour inducing; it carries T-DNA that causes crown gall.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Ri plasmid: root inducing (A. rhizogenes).
2. Not a chromosomal gene.

Question 13: A piece of nucleic acid used to find a gene by forming a hybrid with it is called
(a) cDNA
(b) DNA probe
(c) sticky end
(d) blunt end
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) DNA probe

Explanation:
1. A labelled single-stranded DNA or RNA probe hybridises with its complementary sequence.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Radioactive or fluorescent label.
2. Used in diagnosis.

Question 14: Taq polymerase, used for amplification of DNA, is related to
(a) hybridoma technique
(b) PCR technique
(c) gene cloning
(d) tissue culture
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) PCR technique

Explanation:
1. Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus stays active at the high temperatures of PCR.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Thermostable.
2. Used in extension step.

Question 15: Which of the following cuts DNA at specific places?
(a) restriction endonuclease
(b) ligase
(c) exonuclease
(d) alkaline phosphatase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) restriction endonuclease

Explanation:
1. Restriction endonucleases cut within DNA at recognition sequences.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Exonuclease acts at ends.
2. Ligase joins.

Question 16: Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible because of the discovery of
(a) restriction endonuclease
(b) DNA ligase
(c) transcriptase
(d) primase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) restriction endonuclease

Explanation:
1. Cutting DNA at specific sites with restriction enzymes was the key step, with ligase joining the pieces.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Cut and paste DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes first.

Question 17: Which one has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants?
(a) Bacillus coagulans
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Clostridium septicum
(d) Xanthomonas citri
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Explanation:
1. Agrobacterium naturally transfers its T-DNA into plants.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Ti plasmid vector.
2. Used for dicots mainly.

Question 18: Restriction enzymes are
(a) endonucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites
(b) enzymes that make DNA from RNA
(c) enzymes that cut or join DNA fragments
(d) needed in vectorless gene transfer
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) endonucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites

Explanation:
1. They are nucleases that cut DNA at specific recognition sequences.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Ligases join.
2. Reverse transcriptase makes cDNA.

Question 19: Restriction endonucleases are
(a) synthesised by bacteria as a defence mechanism
(b) present in mammalian cells for degrading DNA when the cell dies
(c) used to ligate two DNA molecules
(d) used for in vitro DNA synthesis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) synthesised by bacteria as a defence mechanism

Explanation:
1. Bacteria use them to cut foreign (phage) DNA, protecting themselves; their own DNA is methylated.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Restriction means restricting viral growth.
2. Methylation protects host DNA.

Question 20: The Ti plasmid used for making transgenic plants is found in
(a) yeast as 2 micron plasmid
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Rhizobium of legume roots
(d) Agrobacterium
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Agrobacterium

Explanation:
1. Ti plasmid belongs to Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Crown gall bacterium.
2. Rhizobium has Sym plasmids.

Question 21: Which of the following is an example of direct gene transfer?
(a) microinjection
(b) electroporation
(c) particle gun (biolistics)
(d) all of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) all of these

Explanation:
1. Microinjection, electroporation and gene gun deliver DNA without a biological vector.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Vectorless methods.
2. Gene gun uses gold or tungsten particles.

Question 22: How many copies of DNA are produced after six cycles of PCR from one DNA molecule?
(a) 4
(b) 32
(c) 64
(d) 16
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 64

Explanation:
1. Each cycle doubles the copies: 2^6 = 64.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Exponential amplification.
2. n cycles: 2^n.

Question 23: Thermal cycling takes place in which technique?
(a) gel electrophoresis
(b) PCR
(c) centrifugation
(d) Southern blotting
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) PCR

Explanation:
1. PCR repeats denaturation, annealing and extension at different temperatures in a thermal cycler.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. 94, 55 and 72 degrees C.
2. Taq survives denaturation.

Question 24: BACs and YACs are
(a) natural DNA from bacteria and yeast
(b) useful vectors for eukaryotic gene transfer
(c) DNA obtained from enzymes
(d) only used in plants
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) useful vectors for eukaryotic gene transfer

Explanation:
1. Bacterial and yeast artificial chromosomes are engineered vectors that carry large inserts.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Used in the Human Genome Project.
2. Artificial.

Question 25: The function of restriction endonuclease in bacteria is to
(a) help in transcription
(b) protect the bacterial DNA against foreign DNA
(c) help in protein synthesis
(d) aid conjugation
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) protect the bacterial DNA against foreign DNA

Explanation:
1. They cut invading (unmethylated) foreign DNA, a defence mechanism.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Host DNA is methylated.
2. Used by us as tools.

Free study material for Biology

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NEET Biology Biotechnology

NEET Biology Biotechnology Objective Test Questions

Test your conceptual understanding of Biotechnology with these targeted multiple-choice questions. Designed in alignment with the latest NEET curriculum for NEET Biology, these problem sets build accuracy and prepare students for objective exams.

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FAQs

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