ISC Class 12 Physical Education Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions

SECTION A - 15 MARKS

Question 1

(i) Radhika joined a training camp and observed that some athletes were running on uneven surfaces like bushes, rocks, pits etc. She could not understand the type of training they were undergoing and asked her coach.
Which type of training were the athletes undergoing? [1 Mark]
(a) Interval training
(b) Fartlek training
(c) Acceleration run
(d) Ballistic method

Answer: (b) Fartlek training

Fartlek training involves running on varied terrain such as uneven surfaces, hills, woods, and rough paths.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fartlek is a Swedish term meaning speed play, combining continuous training with random speed variations over natural terrain.
b) Students often confuse Fartlek training with cross country running or interval training; remember that terrain variation is the key identifier for Fartlek.

(ii) Physical Education ensures ______________ development of an individual. [1 Mark]
(a) character
(b) ethnic
(c) skill
(d) overall

Answer: (d) overall

Physical education aims at the comprehensive and harmonious development of an individual physically, mentally, socially, and emotionally.

Teacher's Note:
a) Overall development encompasses physical, mental, emotional, and social growth through structured physical activities.
b) Read the options carefully as skill or character development are only components of overall development.

(iii) Identify the career in the field of physical education, shown below. [1 Mark]
(a) Sports journalism
(b) Sports commentator
(c) Sports Psychologist
(d) Sports Manager

[Figure: A person wearing headphones and speaking into a microphone while working with broadcasting equipment in a commentary box or media setup.]

Answer: (b) Sports commentator

The individual is shown wearing headset equipment and broadcasting live match events.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sports commentators provide live verbal descriptions of sporting events for television, radio, or digital streaming platforms.
b) Pay close attention to visual cues like headsets, microphones, and broadcast monitors when identifying media-related sports careers.

(iv) Which of the following is NOT a demerit of league tournament? [1 Mark]
(a) Chances of injury due to fatigue
(b) Expensive
(c) Fair opportunity
(d) Time consuming

Answer: (c) Fair opportunity

Providing a fair opportunity to every team to play against all other competitors is a primary merit, not a demerit, of a league tournament.

Teacher's Note:
a) In league tournaments, every team plays every other team, which ensures that the true champion emerges fairly.
b) Expense, time consumption, and fatigue leading to injuries are classic demerits of single or double league formats.

(v) Name the method shown in the picture to make a fixture. [1 Mark]
(a) Knock-out
(b) Tabular
(c) Staircase
(d) Cyclic

[Figure: A triangular grid showing team numbers paired in a matrix layout with entries like 1-2, 1-3, 2-3, 1-4, 2-4, 3-4 up to 1-7 through 6-7.]

Answer: (c) Staircase

The fixture layout follows a stepped, stair-like downward progression characteristic of the staircase method for round-robin tournaments.

Teacher's Note:
a) The staircase method is a cyclic/league fixture drawing technique where fixtures are arranged vertically in a step-by-step pattern.
b) Do not confuse the staircase method with the tabular grid format; staircase fixtures are drawn in a diagonal stair step.

(vi) Given below are two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read the two statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion: Sports Training is an unorganised instruction for a planned performance activity.
Reason: It trains the players in enduring physical load through a variety of physical exercises backed up by necessary technical and tactical inputs. [1 Mark]
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

Answer: (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

Sports training is a highly systematic, scientific, and organized process, making the assertion incorrect, while the reason accurately defines its purpose.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sports training is never unorganized; it is a meticulously planned pedagogical process aimed at improving sports performance.
b) Always evaluate assertion-reason statements independently before checking their logical relationship.

(vii) A condition of the body or mind that makes it difficult for the person to do certain activities is called ____________. [1 Mark]

Answer: Disability

Disability refers to any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being.

Teacher's Note:
a) Disability is an impairment that may be physical, cognitive, mental, sensory, or developmental.
b) Ensure standard medical and WHO definitions are reproduced accurately without altering key terms.

(viii) ___________ is the rapid spread of an infectious disease to many people in a given population within a short period of time. [1 Mark]

Answer: Epidemic

An epidemic occurs when an infectious disease spreads rapidly and affects a large number of people within a community or region simultaneously.

Teacher's Note:
a) Epidemics affect populations within a specific geographical spread, distinct from pandemics which cross international boundaries.
b) Memorize precise epidemiological definitions such as endemic, epidemic, and pandemic for terminology questions.

(ix) A stretch or tear in ligament is known as _____________. [1 Mark]

Answer: Sprain

A sprain is an injury involving the stretching or tearing of ligaments, which are the fibrous tissues connecting bones to other bones.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly between a sprain (injury to ligaments) and a strain (injury to muscles or tendons).
b) This is a high-yield sports medicine terminology question frequently asked in examinations.

(x) A __________ is a piece of medical equipment used to prevent an injured body part from moving and to protect it from any further damage. [1 Mark]

Answer: splint

A splint immobilizes fractured bones or injured joints to prevent further tissue damage during transport or healing.

Teacher's Note:
a) Splints provide rigid or semi-rigid support to maintain anatomical alignment of injured limbs.
b) Correct spelling and precise medical terms are essential for full credit.

(xi) When and by whom was Circuit Training Method developed? [1 Mark]

Answer: Circuit training method was developed by R. E. Morgan and G. T. Anderson in 1953 at the University of Leeds, England.

Teacher's Note:
a) Circuit training involves performing a series of exercise stations consecutively in a specific sequence.
b) Mention both the inventors' names and the exact year for complete credit.

(xii) What is warming up ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Warming up is an exercise done to prepare the body for intense and rigorous training or competitions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Warming up increases body temperature, enhances blood circulation, and improves neuromuscular coordination.
b) Keep definitions concise, covering both the physiological purpose and the timing before main activity.

(xiii) Write the full form of CPR. [1 Mark]

Answer: Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

Teacher's Note:
a) CPR is an emergency lifesaving procedure performed when the heart stops beating.
b) Spelling errors in medical acronym expansions will result in loss of marks.

(xiv) What are grazes? [1 Mark]

Answer: A graze is a scraping or rubbing away of the skin surface that occurs after falling on knees, hands or elbows.

Teacher's Note:
a) Grazes are superficial skin abrasions common in contact and outdoor sports.
b) Differentiate grazes from lacerations and incisions in sports trauma questions.

(xv) What is rehabilitation? [1 Mark]

Answer: Rehabilitation is derived from the word 'habilita' which means ability; so, rehabilitation means to regain ability. According to W.H.O., 'Combined and coordinate of medical, social, educational and vocational measures for training or re-training the individual to the highest possible level of functional ability'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rehabilitation restores an injured athlete or individual to optimal functional capacity.
b) Citing the WHO definition adds academic rigor and secures full marks.

SECTION B - 25 MARKS

Question 2 [5 Marks]
Identify the training method shown above. Write any four merits of this training method.

[Figure: A winding path diagram showing sequential stations labeled Start, Jogging, Running, Sprint, Walk, Exercises, Push ups, Frog jump, Hopping, Slow Running, Fast Running, Sprint, and Finish.]

Answer:
Identification: Fartlek training method.
Merits of Fartlek Training:
1. Easy to adopt for the players as it requires no specialized equipment and can be performed anywhere.
2. Not rigid but flexible in nature, allowing athletes to adjust pace according to how they feel.
3. Gives more self-confidence and mental toughness through varied physical challenges.
4. Develops the calibre of tackling tactical match situations and unpredictable physical demands.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fartlek blends continuous aerobic endurance training with anaerobic speed bursts.
b) Students must correctly identify the diagram first before listing any four distinct merits.

Question 3

(i) Write short notes on the following: [5 Marks]

(a) Thomas Splint [2½ Marks]

Answer:
1. It is named after the famous British orthopaedic surgeon, Sir Hugh Owen Thomas.
2. It is a metal splint consisting of a ring at the end to fit around the upper arm or leg, and two shafts extending down the side of the limb in a long 'U' shape with a crosspiece at the bottom where traction is applied.
3. It is used for immobilization in fractures of the thigh bone, near the knee and leg, except when there is a severe open wound making traction painful.

Teacher's Note:
a) Thomas splint is a classic immobilization device designed to stabilize long bone fractures of the lower extremities.
b) Mention the inventor, structural design, and clinical application for full credit.

(b) Occupational Health Hazards [2½ Marks]

Answer:
1. Occupational health hazards refer to the physical, chemical, biological, ergonomic, and psychological risks that workers are exposed to at their workplace.
2. These hazards need to be prevented or controlled to establish and maintain a safe and healthy working environment.
3. Examples include exposure to toxic chemical vapours, heavy metals (lead, mercury), loud noise, vibrations, and dangerous machinery.

Teacher's Note:
a) Occupational hazards compromise worker safety and require active ergonomic and industrial hygiene interventions.
b) Categorizing hazards into chemical, physical, and biological adds completeness to the answer.

OR

(ii) Answer the following: [5 Marks]

(a) Mention any five ill effects of consumption of alcohol. [2½ Marks]

Answer:
1. Contrary to popular belief, alcohol depresses the central nervous system rather than stimulating it.
2. Sense of observation, attention, and finer judgment are severely impaired.
3. It causes physical ailments related to vital organs such as the liver, brain, heart, and kidneys.
4. Regular alcohol consumption depletes vitamin B levels, leading to severe liver damage.
5. It impairs motor coordination, often resulting in automobile and sports accidents.

Teacher's Note:
a) Alcohol is a psychoactive substance with profound depressant and toxic physiological effects.
b) List any five distinct physiological or psychological consequences to secure full marks.

(b) What is disability? Explain any four causes of Disability. [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Definition: Disability is a restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being.
Causes of Disability:
1. Poverty and Malnutrition: Forces people to live in unsafe environments with poor sanitation, lack of clean water, and inadequate nutrition, increasing susceptibility to crippling diseases like polio.
2. Wars: Explosions and armed conflicts cause physical trauma, loss of limbs, blindness, deafness, and severe psychological distress.
3. Nuclear Accidents: Exposure to massive radiation from nuclear disasters causes lethal cancers, genetic mutations, and developmental disorders in children.
4. Poor Access to Health Care: Lack of vaccines, essential medicines, and prenatal care leads to preventable birth defects and untreated disabling illnesses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Disability can be congenital or acquired due to environmental, socio-economic, or traumatic factors.
b) Provide the standard definition followed by clear explanations of any four major causes.

Question 4 [5 Marks]
Samaira is a badminton coach in a school. She has to prepare her team for the upcoming state level tournaments. Hence, she conducts a training session in the school and observes that few players are good in defense but unable to play till the last moment due to lack of strength and endurance.
Suggest a method of training to Samaira that will help her increase the strength and endurance of her players. Support any four reasons for your answer.

Answer:
Suggested Training Method: Continuous Training Method (or Fartlek Training / Circuit Training).
Reasons for recommendation:
1. Continuous training builds aerobic endurance, enabling players to maintain high-intensity rallies throughout long matches without premature fatigue.
2. It increases cardiovascular efficiency, strengthening the heart muscle to pump blood and oxygen more effectively to working muscles.
3. It enhances muscular endurance by allowing slow-twitch muscle fibers to sustain prolonged workloads over extended periods.
4. It improves mental stamina and willpower, helping athletes push through exhaustion during critical concluding stages of competitive games.

Teacher's Note:
a) Continuous training involves sustained effort over long durations without rest intervals.
b) Application-based questions require linking the specific physiological requirement (strength and endurance) to the correct training methodology.

Question 5 [5 Marks]
Draw a fixture of eight teams using Tabular method.

Answer:
Number of teams (\( n \)) = 8
Number of columns = \( n + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9 \)
Number of rounds = \( n - 1 = 8 - 1 = 7 \)
Number of matches = \( \frac{n(n-1)}{2} = \frac{8(7)}{2} = 28 \) matches

Tabular Fixture Matrix (8 Teams: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H):

Round-wise Schedule:

Teacher's Note:
a) The tabular method arranges teams in a grid where numbers inside cells indicate the round in which teams play.
b) Always show calculations for columns, rounds, and total matches before constructing the table.

Question 6

(i) What is conditioning? Write any four advantages of Conditioning. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Definition: Conditioning is a long-term systematic training process that enhances stamina, endurance, and physical fitness to meet the specific energy and performance demands of a sport. It involves progressive overload, temporary disruption of homeostasis, and recovery for physiological adaptation.
Advantages of Conditioning:
1. Stronger Athletes: Enhances muscular strength and structural integrity.
2. Faster Athletes: Improves speed, agility, and explosive power.
3. Injury Prevention: Strengthens joints, tendons, and ligaments against trauma.
4. Improved Sports Specific Skills: Builds physical foundations necessary for executing technical skills flawlessly.

Teacher's Note:
a) Conditioning prepares the body to endure rigorous physical loads through systematic overload and adaptation.
b) Define conditioning thoroughly before listing any four distinct advantages.

OR

(ii) Write a short note on Posture. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Posture refers to the alignment and balancing of the body in an accurate and proper manner while sitting, standing, walking, and writing.
2. Standing Posture: Weight should be equally distributed on both legs, heels touching, toes 3 to 4 inches apart, body erect, knees straight, chest forward, chin inside, and belly backward.
3. Sitting Posture: Head, spinal column, shoulders, and hips should form a straight vertical line. Thighs must be horizontal with feet flat on the ground.
4. Walking Posture: The heel should strike the ground first, transferring body weight smoothly forward to the toes.
5. Sleeping Posture: A flat or normal-sized pillow should be used to maintain natural cervical spine alignment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Good posture minimizes muscular strain and preserves skeletal alignment.
b) Detail the specific biomechanical guidelines for standing, sitting, walking, and sleeping for maximum credit.

SECTION C - 30 MARKS

Attempt all questions on any two games from this section.

FOOTBALL

Question 7

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) What is an indirect free kick in the game of football? State any two situations when a referee awards an indirect free kick. [3 Marks]

Answer:
An indirect free kick is a restart from which a goal cannot be scored directly; the ball must be touched by another player before entering the goal.
Situations:
1. Playing in a dangerous manner.
2. Impeding the progress of an opponent without physical contact.

Teacher's Note:
a) Indirect free kicks penalize technical infractions rather than direct fouls.
b) Emphasize that the ball must touch a second player before scoring.

(b) What will be the decision of the referee if a player is in offside position? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Indirect free kick will be awarded to the opponent team.

Teacher's Note:
a) Offside is penalized where the infraction occurred.
b) State the exact restart method for complete marks.

(c) What will be the decision of the referee if the player fights with other player during the game? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Red card will be given to that player (sending off).

Teacher's Note:
a) Fighting constitutes violent conduct under Law 12.
b) Immediate expulsion via red card is mandatory.

(ii) (a) Mention any five occasions when a player is NOT considered as offside. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. An attacker in an offside position, not interfering with play or an opponent, does not touch the ball.
2. When the ball rebounds directly from the goal post, crossbar, or an opponent.
3. At the time of a corner kick.
4. At the time of a throw-in.
5. If a player is level with the second-last opponent or the last two opponents.

Teacher's Note:
a) Offside rule exceptions are crucial for accurate refereeing.
b) Mention restart situations like throw-ins and corner kicks clearly.

OR

(b) Differentiate between added time and extra time. [5 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Added time is stoppage allowance within regular time; extra time is an extension for tie-breaking.
b) Use a tabular format for clear differentiation.

(iii) Explain the following: [5 Marks]

(a) Advantage [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Advantage is a provision where the referee allows play to continue when an offence occurs if the non-offending team benefits from having possession or attacking control of the ball.

Teacher's Note:
a) Advantage promotes fluid gameplay by refraining from stopping play unnecessarily.
b) Mention that if the anticipated advantage does not materialize, the referee pulls back play to penalize the original foul.

(b) Tie Break [2½ Marks]

Answer:
When a knockout match is tied after regulation and extra time (120 minutes), the winner is decided through a penalty shoot-out where teams take alternating penalty kicks from the penalty mark.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tie-break procedures ensure a definite result in tournament matches.
b) Explain both extra time and penalty shoot-out phases.

CRICKET

Question 8

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) Explain Test Match Cricket. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Test cricket is the longest form of first-class international cricket played between two national teams over five days.
2. A match consists of four innings (two per team) with a minimum requirement of 90 overs bowled per day.
3. Teams must dismiss all opposing batsmen twice to win, emphasizing immense skill, patience, and stamina.

Teacher's Note:
a) Test cricket represents the traditional pinnacle of the sport.
b) Highlight the 5-day duration, 4 innings structure, and daily over quota.

(b) What is term used in cricket if the bowler bowls the ball directly above the waist height? [1 Mark]

Answer:
No ball is declared (full toss above waist height).

Teacher's Note:
a) Fast full tosses above waist height are dangerous and illegal.
b) State the exact umpire call.

(c) What will be the decision of the umpire if a batsman obstructs the field during the game? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Batsman declared out (obstructing the field).

Teacher's Note:
a) Wilful interference with fielders or the ball results in dismissal.
b) Cite the correct mode of dismissal.

(ii) (a) Mention any five instances when the umpire calls and signals a no ball. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Front foot breaking or landing beyond the popping crease (front foot no ball).
2. Back foot touching or landing outside the return crease (back foot no ball).
3. Bowling a fast pitched delivery that passes above the batsman's waist height on the full.
4. Bowling a delivery that bounces over the batsman's head.
5. Delivering a ball that bounces more than once before reaching the batting crease.

Teacher's Note:
a) No balls penalize illegal bowling actions or deliveries.
b) List any five technical infractions clearly.

OR

(b) Enlist ten ways of a batsman getting out. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Bowled
2. Caught
3. Leg Before Wicket (LBW)
4. Run Out
5. Stumped
6. Hit Wicket
7. Obstructing the Field
8. Hit the Ball Twice
9. Timed Out
10. Handled the Ball (historical/superseded by obstructing the field in modern laws)

Teacher's Note:
a) The laws of cricket specify ten primary modes of dismissal.
b) List all ten accurately with correct cricketing terminology.

(iii) Explain the following terms: [5 Marks]

(a) Sledging [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Sledging is the practice of verbal intimidation, psychological banter, or insults used by players to undermine the concentration and confidence of opposing batsmen.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sledging borders on unsportsmanlike conduct when abusive.
b) Emphasize its psychological intent.

(b) Super Over [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A Super Over is a tie-breaking eliminator used in limited-overs cricket where each team plays a single additional over of six balls to determine the winner.

Teacher's Note:
a) Super overs resolve tied limited-overs matches immediately.
b) Mention the 6-ball over constraint and objective of scoring maximum runs.

HOCKEY

Question 9

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) What are the differences between a short corner and a long corner in hockey? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Short Corner (Penalty Corner): Awarded for a defensive foul inside the circle or intentional foul in the 23-meter area; taken from the backline 10m from the goal post.
2. Long Corner: Awarded when a defender unintentionally plays the ball over the backline; taken from the corner of the field (20m from goal line).

Teacher's Note:
a) Short corners are major scoring opportunities resulting from fouls.
b) Contrast their placement and causes clearly.

(b) What will be the referee’s decision if a player raises the bottom part of the stick above his shoulder while attempting to hit the ball? [1 Mark]

Answer:
High stick foul is given (free hit awarded to the opposing team).

Teacher's Note:
a) Raising the stick dangerously above shoulder level endangers players.
b) State the exact infringement and penalty.

(c) What will be the decision of the umpire in Field hockey if the ball is hit from outside the circle and goes into the goal? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Goal will not be counted (a goal can only be scored if the ball is touched or hit by an attacker inside the shooting circle).

Teacher's Note:
a) Goals must originate from strikes inside the circle.
b) Emphasize the circle restriction rule.

(ii) (a) What are foot foul and air ball in hockey? [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Foot Foul: Occurs when a field player stops, kicks, or controls the ball with their foot or any part of the body, resulting in a free hit for the opponents.
2. Air Ball: Raising the ball intentionally into the air is prohibited unless it is a shot at goal or not dangerous; lifting the ball above knee height within 5 meters of another player constitutes a foul.

Teacher's Note:
a) Both rules prevent dangerous play and illegal body contact with the ball.
b) Explain foot restriction and height/danger criteria for air balls.

OR

(b) Explain forehand pass. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. A forehand pass is executed from the right side of the body (strong side) where the player faces the target.
2. The ball begins on the right, the stick sweeps forward in a fluid motion, and body weight shifts from the back foot to the front foot.
3. It provides greater power and accuracy than reverse stick passes and is fundamental for quick ball distribution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Forehand passes are the most reliable passing technique in hockey.
b) Describe body positioning, stick movement, and weight transfer.

(iii) Explain the following: [5 Marks]

(a) Obstruction [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Obstruction occurs when a player uses their body, legs, or stick to shield the ball and prevent an opponent from tackling or gaining access to it.

Teacher's Note:
a) Players must allow opponents an equal opportunity to play the ball.
b) Define shielding infringements accurately.

(b) Zonal marking [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Zonal marking is a defensive strategy where defenders are assigned responsibility for guarding a specific geographical area or zone on the pitch rather than tracking individual opponents.

Teacher's Note:
a) Zonal defense maintains structural integrity across the field.
b) Contrast with man-to-man marking.

BASKETBALL

Question 10

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) State the difference between team foul marker and player foul marker. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Team Foul Marker: Indicates the cumulative personal and technical fouls committed by a team in a quarter, leading to bonus free throws when the limit is exceeded.
2. Player Foul Marker: Denotes the individual personal fouls accumulated by a specific player, resulting in disqualification upon reaching five fouls.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish between collective team limits and individual player disqualifications.
b) Mention penalty implications for both.

(b) If a team has committed five fouls in a quarter, what will be the decision of the referee? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The opposing team is awarded two free throws for any subsequent defensive foul (team is over the limit).

Teacher's Note:
a) Cumulative team fouls trigger penalty free throws.
b) State the exact penalty.

(c) During a match, a player bumps into the opponent from behind. What will be the decision of the referee? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Personal foul is called against the offending player.

Teacher's Note:
a) Illegal contact from behind violates guarding principles.
b) State the referee's sanction.

(ii) (a) What is the procedure of substitution in a basketball match? [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Substitutions can only take place when the game clock is stopped and the ball is dead.
2. The substitute player must report to the scorer's table and request entry.
3. The scorer signals the referees at the next stoppage, and the player enters the court only after being beckoned by the referee.

Teacher's Note:
a) Substitutions must follow official table protocols during dead ball periods.
b) Detail the reporting and beckoning steps.

OR

(b) What is screening? What are the two positions of legal screening? [5 Marks]

Answer:
Screening: An offensive maneuver where a player legally blocks the path of a defender to free a teammate for a pass or shot.
Legal Screening Positions:
1. The screener must be stationary with feet wider than shoulder-width apart, establishing a balanced base.
2. The screener must maintain a vertical body posture without leaning forward, backward, or extending limbs to impede the defender.

Teacher's Note:
a) Illegal screens result in offensive charging or blocking fouls.
b) Define screening and explain stationary/vertical positioning requirements.

(iii) Explain the following terms: [5 Marks]

(a) Held ball [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A held ball occurs when two opposing players place one or both hands firmly on the ball at the same time, preventing either from gaining sole possession, resulting in a jump ball or alternate possession ruling.

Teacher's Note:
a) Held balls resolve contested possessions fairly.
b) Mention the dual-hand contact requirement.

(b) Travelling [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Travelling is a violation committed when a player holding the ball moves their pivot foot illegally or takes more steps than permitted without dribbling.

Teacher's Note:
a) Travelling is one of the most frequent basketball violations.
b) Define illegal foot movement clearly.

VOLLEYBALL

Question 11

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) Enlist any three attack errors. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The ball lands out of bounds.
2. The attacker hits the ball into the net.
3. The attacker commits a center line or net touch violation during the hit.

Teacher's Note:
a) Attack errors concede points and service to opponents.
b) List any three distinct attacking faults.

(b) If a player serves out of a rotation order, what will be the referee’s decision? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Rotational fault; point and service awarded to the opposing team.

Teacher's Note:
a) Positional order must be maintained strictly.
b) State the penalty.

(c) What will be the decision of the referee if a player crosses the centre line while smashing the ball? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Penetration fault; point and service awarded to the opposing team.

Teacher's Note:
a) Crossing the center line completely into opponent territory is illegal.
b) State the exact foul called.

(ii) (a) State the circumstances when the team is declared to be defaulting. How is a set and a match decided in such a situation? [5 Marks]

Answer:
Circumstances: A team is declared defaulting if it refuses to play after being summoned or fails to appear on the court on time without justifiable reason.
Decision: The defaulting team forfeits the match 0-3, with each forfeited set scored 0-25.

Teacher's Note:
a) Defaulting is a severe disciplinary penalty for non-appearance or refusal to play.
b) Specify the exact set score (0-25) and match forfeiture score (0-3).

OR

(b) State any five duties of the first referee in volleyball. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Inspects playing area, net, ball, and equipment prior to the match.
2. Conducts the coin toss with team captains.
3. Controls team warm-up sessions.
4. Authorizes service and penalizes faults during rallies.
5. Checks and signs the official score sheet at the end of the match.

Teacher's Note:
a) The first referee has ultimate authority over the match.
b) List any five administrative and officiating duties clearly.

(iii) Explain the following: [5 Marks]

(a) Side Bands [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Side bands are two white vertical markers fastened to the net directly above each sideline, serving as boundary markers for legal ball crosses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Balls must pass entirely between the antennas/bands.
b) Describe dimensions and placement.

(b) Screening [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Screening in volleyball occurs when players of the serving team wave arms, jump, or move sideways to hide the server and the flight path of the ball from the receiving team.

Teacher's Note:
a) Screening during serves is an illegal obstruction.
b) Explain how visual shielding constitutes a fault.

TENNIS

Question 12

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) What is the pattern of scoring in a tiebreaker? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Points are scored numerically as Zero, 1, 2, 3, etc.
2. The first player or team to win 7 points wins the tiebreak game and set, provided there is a 2-point margin.
3. Service alternates after the first point and subsequently every two points.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tie-breaks decide sets tied at 6-6.
b) Highlight the 7-point target and 2-point clear margin rule.

(b) What will be the decision of an umpire if a server is taking more time to start the service? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Time violation warning issued to the server (subsequent delays result in point penalties).

Teacher's Note:
a) Players must adhere to time limits between points.
b) State the exact warning procedure.

(c) What will be the decision of an umpire if a server toss the ball but takes back the ball in his hand? [1 Mark]

Answer:
No penalty; the server is allowed to catch the tossed ball and retoss without fault.

Teacher's Note:
a) Catching a toss without hitting it does not constitute a fault.
b) Clarify that no penalty is incurred.

(ii) (a) State any five duties of the chief umpire in tennis. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Recruits and trains competent tournament officials.
2. Schedules on-court assignments for chair umpires and line judges.
3. Conducts pre-tournament briefings and reviews rule interpretations.
4. Evaluates performance of all on-court officials.
5. Ensures presence on-site throughout tournament play to assist the referee.

Teacher's Note:
a) The chief umpire manages officiating personnel.
b) List any five administrative responsibilities.

OR

(b) State any five instances when a player loses a point during the game. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Fails to return a live ball before it bounces twice on their court.
2. Hits the ball outside the court boundaries.
3. Touches the net or opponent's court with racket or body during play.
4. Hits the ball before it crosses the net onto their side.
5. Double hits the ball intentionally with multiple strokes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Point-loss rules govern standard rally faults.
b) List any five distinct infractions accurately.

(iii) Explain the following terms: [5 Marks]

(a) Alley [2½ Marks]

Answer:
The alley is the extra corridor on each side of the tennis court between the singles sideline and doubles sideline, utilized exclusively during doubles matches.

Teacher's Note:
a) Alleys widen the court dimensions for doubles play.
b) Define its location and purpose.

(b) Slice [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A slice is a shot hit by brushing underneath the tennis ball with an open racket face, imparting backspin that causes the ball to stay low and skid upon bouncing.

Teacher's Note:
a) Slices are effective defensive and tactical tempo-changing shots.
b) Explain the racket mechanics and resulting spin.

BADMINTON

Question 13

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) Mention the rules of the correct service in badminton. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The shuttle must be hit from below the server's waist level.
2. The shaft and head of the racket must point in a downward direction at the moment of striking.
3. Both server and receiver must remain stationary within their respective diagonal service courts with feet touching the ground until service is delivered.

Teacher's Note:
a) Service faults are strictly penalized in badminton.
b) Highlight waist height, racket head angle, and stationary foot placement.

(b) Rishika is participating in a match of badminton which is about to begin. On which side of the court will Rishika serve in the beginning of the game? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Right service court (when the server's score is zero or even).

Answer:
Deuce (play continues until a 2-point lead is secured or up to a maximum cap of 30 points).

Teacher's Note:
a) 20-20 triggers extra points to decide the set.
b) Mention the 2-point clear margin rule.

(ii) (a) Mention any five situations when Let is called by the umpire. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. An unforeseen or accidental situation interrupts play.
2. The server serves before the receiver is ready.
3. During play, the shuttle disintegrates and the base separates completely.
4. A line judge is unsighted and unable to make a call.
5. The shuttle touches the net and lands in the opponent's court during service (in some rule interpretations, though standard service lets apply).

Teacher's Note:
a) A let results in replaying the point without penalty.
b) List any five valid interruption scenarios.

OR

(b) Explain any two types of strokes in badminton. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Smash: An overhead attacking stroke hit downward with immense power, designed to finish the rally quickly.
2. Clear (Lob): A defensive overhead stroke hit high and deep into the opponent's back court to gain time to recover court position.

Teacher's Note:
a) Badminton strokes vary from aggressive smashes to defensive clears.
b) Explain trajectory, purpose, and execution for any two strokes.

(iii) Explain the following terms: [5 Marks]

(a) Cross court [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A cross-court shot is hit diagonally from one side of the court across the net into the opposite diagonal court, making it harder for opponents to intercept.

Teacher's Note:
a) Diagonal placement stretches opponent coverage.
b) Define trajectory and tactical purpose.

(b) Drive [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A drive is a fast, flat counter-attacking shot hit parallel to the floor, skimming closely over the net from mid-court to mid-court.

Teacher's Note:
a) Drives maintain pressure during mid-court exchanges.
b) Describe flat trajectory and speed.

SWIMMING

Question 14

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) State the various types of cooling down exercise after swimming. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Swimming easy laps at a slow, leisurely pace using backstroke or freestyle.
2. Performing kickboard laps using gentle flutter or breaststroke kicks.
3. Doing wall stretches and streamlined body stretches to relax back and shoulder muscles.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cooling down flushes lactic acid and prevents muscle soreness.
b) List three appropriate post-swim recovery routines.

(b) What will be the decision of the referee if a swimmer is not touching the wall on a turn? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Player will be disqualified for illegal turn.

Teacher's Note:
a) Wall contact is mandatory during turns in pool events.
b) State the disqualification penalty.

(c) What will be the decision of the referee if a swimmer in freestyle swimming competition walks on the bottom? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Player will be disqualified (standing on the bottom is permitted for resting but walking/propelling is illegal).

Teacher's Note:
a) Swimmers cannot use the pool bottom for propulsion.
b) State disqualification rule.

(ii) (a) What is false start rope? What is its importance in swimming? [5 Marks]

Answer:
Definition: A false start rope is a recalled rope suspended across the swimming pool, typically 15 meters from the start wall.
Importance: It drops across the pool to stop and catch swimmers in the event of a false start, ensuring fair competition.

Teacher's Note:
a) False start ropes safeguard against unfair starts.
b) Explain its structure and critical safety function.

OR

(b) State any five duties of Inspector on Turns. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ensure swimmers comply with relevant turning and finishing rules.
2. Observe legality of relay take-overs and touch-pads.
3. Report any rule infractions immediately to the chief inspector or referee.
4. Record laps completed in distance events.
5. Manage lap count cards for long-distance races.

Teacher's Note:
a) Turn judges maintain integrity during wall transitions.
b) List any five inspection and reporting duties.

(iii) Explain the following: [5 Marks]

(a) Tapper [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A tapper is a personal assistant who uses a pole with a soft-tipped end to tap blind or visually impaired swimmers as a signal of approaching walls for turns and finishes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tappers ensure safety for visually impaired swimmers.
b) Describe the equipment and signaling role.

(b) Paddler [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A paddler is a person on a paddle board or manually propelled craft who accompanies and supports open-water swimmers for safety and guidance.

Teacher's Note:
a) Open-water safety requires dedicated escort paddlers.
b) Explain their support function.

ATHLETICS

Question 15

(i) Answer the following questions:

(a) What is high jump? Name the different techniques of high jump. [3 Marks]

Answer:
High jump is a track and field event where athletes jump unaided over a horizontal bar placed at measured heights without dislodging it.
Techniques:
1. Scissors technique
2. Eastern cut-off
3. Western roll
4. Straddle
5. Fosbury flop

Teacher's Note:
a) High jump requires explosive leg power and flexible clearance technique.
b) Name at least three standard jumping techniques.

(b) A javelin falls with tail of the javelin in a javelin throw event. What will be the referee’s decision? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Referee will consider it a foul throw (the metal head must strike the ground first).

Teacher's Note:
a) Proper landing angle is mandatory in javelin.
b) State the foul ruling.

(c) What will be the decision of the officials if a player exits from the front side of the shotput sector after the throw? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Referee will consider it a foul throw (athletes must exit from the rear half of the throwing circle).

Teacher's Note:
a) Exiting forward invalidates the throwing attempt.
b) State the foul rule.

(ii) (a) Write the duties of the lap scorer. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Keep accurate records of laps completed by all athletes in races longer than 1500 meters.
2. Operate display boards showing laps remaining for the lead runner.
3. Ring the bell at the start of the final lap for runners.
4. Announce and record lapped competitors.
5. Coordinate with timekeepers to ensure precise lap timings.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lap scorers track distance race progress.
b) List any five core responsibilities.

OR

(b) Draw a neat diagram of a discus throw sector, with all its specifications. [5 Marks]

Answer:
[Figure: Discus throw sector showing a throwing circle of 2.50m diameter, protective cage, center point, and a landing sector angle of 34.92 degrees with boundary lines.]

Teacher's Note:
a) Discus throw requires a 2.50m circle and a 34.92-degree landing sector.
b) Students must draw the sector with correct angle and circle dimensions.

(iii) Explain the following terms: [5 Marks]

(a) Photo finish [2½ Marks]

Answer:
A photo finish occurs when multiple competitors cross the finish line almost simultaneously, requiring high-speed camera imagery to determine exact placings accurately.

Teacher's Note:
a) Photo finishes eliminate human error in close track races.
b) Explain technological verification.

(b) Hurdles [2½ Marks]

Answer:
Hurdling is a track and field event where athletes run at high speed and jump over specialized obstacles (hurdles) placed at regular intervals across the track.

Teacher's Note:
a) Hurdles combine sprinting speed with rhythmic clearance technique.
b) Define the event structure.