ISC Class 12 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2015 with Solutions

ISC Class 12 Geography Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions 2015

PART - I (30 Marks)
Answer all questions.
SECTION - A

Question 1. [10 × 2]
(i) Mention the land area of India and Australia in kilometres. [2 Marks]

Answer:
India: 32,87,263 sq. km (or 3.28 million sq. km)
Australia: 76,86,848 sq. km

Teacher's Note:
a) Memorize exact geographical statistics for major countries as required by board questions.
b) Ensure proper units (sq. km) are mentioned alongside the numerical values to avoid loss of marks.

(ii) The figure below represents a section from the Aravalis to the Peninsular region. Identify any two of the relief features marked, A, B, C and D. [2 Marks]

[Figure: Cross-section profile from Aravalis to the Peninsular region showing elevations, river valleys including R. Chambal, R. Narmada, and R. Tapi, with labels A, B, C, and D indicating distinct plateau and mountain units.]

Answer:
A - Malwa Plateau
B - Vindhya
C - Satpura
D - Deccan Plateau
*(Any two of the above features)*

Teacher's Note:
a) Physiographic cross-sections require careful observation of river valleys acting as boundaries between plateaus and ranges.
b) Students must practice drawing and labeling standard north-south profiles of the Indian peninsula.

(iii) Briefly discuss the role of El Nino in Indian climate. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. El Nino is a narrow warm current which sometimes appears off the coast of Peru in South America during December, increasing surface water temperature.
2. This warming of Tropical Pacific water disrupts global pressure and wind systems, including the monsoon winds in the Indian Ocean, often causing severe droughts or floods in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain El Nino clearly as a periodic warm ocean current affecting global teleconnections.
b) Link the phenomenon directly to its disruptive impact on the South-West monsoon in India.

(iv) Mention two objectives of the Indian Forest Policy. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain environmental stability through preservation and restoration of ecological balance.
2. To check soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, and reservoirs.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the primary ecological and protective goals outlined in national forest policy guidelines.
b) Avoid writing commercial objectives when asked about environmental policy goals.

(v) What is the index of concentration of population? Which state in India has the maximum index of concentration according to the 2011 census? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Index of concentration is defined as the proportion of population living in each State or Union Territory to the total population of India, expressed in percentage.
2. According to the 2011 census, Uttar Pradesh has the highest index of concentration (19.5%).

Teacher's Note:
a) Define demographic indices precisely using standard geographical terminology.
b) Quote accurate census 2011 data for state-level population contributions.

(vi) State any two problems faced by the fishing industry in Bangladesh. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Severe tropical cyclones frequently originate in the Bay of Bengal, posing serious threats to fishermen.
2. The hot and humid tropical climate creates major challenges for the preservation and transportation of fish.

Teacher's Note:
a) Consider both physical hazards (cyclones) and infrastructural hurdles (preservation) specific to the region.
b) Keep answers concise and specific to Bangladesh's geographical context.

(vii) Give one difference between natural harbours and artificial harbours. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Natural harbours occur naturally along fairly indented coastlines where deep inlets or backwater bays facilitate the entry and anchoring of large cargo ships. Artificial harbours are man-made facilities constructed by dredging shallow areas and erecting protective breakwaters and walls against the sea.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the origin (natural indentation versus human construction) as the core point of differentiation.
b) Mention functional aspects such as depth and wave protection for completeness.

(viii) Name two centres of integrated iron and steel industry in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) at Jamshedpur.
2. Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) at Bhilai.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish between integrated steel plants and mini steel mills when citing examples.
b) Include both plant name and location for full credit.

(ix) Write two factors which have facilitated the setting up of cotton textile industry in Mumbai. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Availability of black cotton soil in the hinterland providing abundant raw material.
2. Humid climate of Mumbai which prevents cotton thread from snapping frequently during spinning.

Teacher's Note:
a) Combine raw material supply with climatic advantages when explaining early industrial localization.
b) Mentioning humidity is crucial for explaining cotton textile localization in coastal Maharashtra.

(x) Mention any two positive impacts of tourism in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It generates large-scale employment opportunities across hospitality, transport, and service sectors.
2. It serves as a major source of earning foreign exchange for the national economy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on economic benefits such as employment and foreign exchange earnings.
b) Keep points distinct and direct.

SECTION - B

Question 2. [10 Marks]
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Mark and name the 23.5 °N latitude. [1 Mark]
(b) Mark and name the Anaimudi peak. [1 Mark]
(c) Trace the course of River Kaveri. [1 Mark]
(d) Mark with an arrow the direction of winter jet stream over India. [1 Mark]
(e) Mark and name the state with the lowest level of urbanisation. [1 Mark]
(f) Shade the state with the highest cropping intensity. [1 Mark]
(g) Shade and name the leading state for rice production. [1 Mark]
(h) Mark and name a centre for manganese production. [1 Mark]
(i) Mark Kochi seaport. [1 Mark]
(j) Mark and name the Pune centre of sugar industry in Maharashtra. [1 Mark]
Note: All the map work, including legend (Index) should be done on the map sheet only.

Answer:
(a) 23.5 °N latitude marked across central India (Tropic of Cancer).
(b) Anaimudi peak marked in the southern Western Ghats.
(c) River Kaveri traced flowing eastwards from Karnataka into Tamil Nadu.
(d) Winter jet stream marked with an arrow flowing from west to east across northern India.
(e) Himachal Pradesh marked as the state with the lowest level of urbanisation.
(f) Punjab shaded as the state with the highest cropping intensity.
(g) West Bengal shaded as the leading state for rice production.
(h) Bonai marked as a centre for manganese production.
(i) Kochi seaport marked on the southwestern coast.
(j) Pune marked in Maharashtra as a sugar industry centre.

Teacher's Note:
a) Map-marking questions require precise locations and clear labeling with arrows where applicable.
b) Students must include a proper index/legend on the map sheet as instructed.

PART - II (40 Marks)
Answer any four questions.

Question 3.

(a) (i) Briefly explain the geological evolution of the peninsular plateau. [4 Marks]
(ii) Define the terms Lagoon and Delta with an example of each from the Indian region.

Answer:
(i) During the Precambrian era, a large depression accumulated thick sediments, out of which a block of crystalline rock known as the Peninsula Plateau emerged and never submerged again. This stable landmass has behaved as a rigid and inflexible block throughout geological history and is often compared to a horst.
(ii) Lagoon: Saltwater lakes separated from the main sea by sand bars and spits, for example, Chilka Lake.
Delta: A triangular-shaped depositional feature formed in the lower course of a river where it splits into distributaries and deposits sediments, for example, the Ganga - Brahmaputra Delta.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the rigid block concept of the peninsular block clearly.
b) Provide accurate definitions along with standard Indian geographical examples for coastal landforms.

(b) Name the two rivers that make the easternmost and the westernmost limits of Kumaon Himalayas. [2 Marks]

Answer:
River Satluj and River Kali.

Teacher's Note:
a) Regional divisions of the Himalayas by river valleys are standard board examination topics.
b) Ensure correct spelling of river names (Satluj and Kali).

(c) Distinguish between the terms Flora and Forest. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that flora refers to species composition while forest refers to areal extent and density.
b) Present differences in a clear tabular format for maximum clarity.

(d) Study the climatic graph of station A given below and answer the questions that follow: [2 Marks]
(i) Give a reason as to why extreme low temperature is indicated for station A.
(ii) Name the month when the highest amount of rainfall is received.

[Figure: Climatic graph showing monthly temperature curve dropping below freezing point to -10°C and rainfall bars peaking during mid-year months.]

Answer:
(i) Station A is situated at a high altitude and is surrounded by lofty mountains, placing it out of the influence of moderating maritime winds.
(ii) July and August.

Teacher's Note:
a) Interpret climatic graphs by correlating altitude and continentality with temperature extremes.
b) Read rainfall bar heights accurately against the secondary axis.

Question 4.

(a) Define an urban area according to the latest census. [2 Marks]

Answer:
According to the latest census, an urban area is defined as:
1. All places with a Municipality, Corporation, Cantonment Board, or Notified Town Area Committee.
2. All other places satisfying the following criteria: a minimum population of 5,000, at least 75% of the male working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits, and a population density of at least 400 persons per square km.

Teacher's Note:
a) Memorize the exact statutory and demographic criteria used by the Census of India.
b) Include both statutory towns and census towns criteria for complete marks.

(b) (i) What is the present population of India? [2 Marks]
(ii) With reference to the percentage of world population, state India's position in the world.

Answer:
(i) According to the 2011 Census, the population of India was 1.21 billion.
(ii) India holds second position in the world with reference to total population.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cite standard decennial census figures unless updated official estimates are specified.
b) Clearly state global ranking alongside demographic scale.

(c) What is the difference between arithmetic density of population and physiological density of population? [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Differentiate clearly between total geographical area and agricultural/cultivated area denominators.
b) Present formulas or concise definitions in a comparative table.

(d) Study the given types of rural settlements and answer the questions that follow: [4 Marks]
(i) Identify the two types of settlements A and B. State one characteristic feature each of the two settlements.
(ii) What is the main economic function performed in a rural settlement?

[Figure: Diagram of rural settlement patterns showing scattered farmsteads labeled Settlement A (Dispersed) and clustered village homes labeled Settlement B (Compact).]

Answer:
(i)

(ii) The main economic functions performed in rural settlements are agriculture, mining, forestry, fishing, and lumbering.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify settlement patterns correctly from structural diagrams.
b) Relate settlement morphology directly to primary economic activities.

Question 5.

(a) What is meant by environmental management? Why is there a need for environmental management in India? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Environmental management is a process of planning, review, assessment, and decision-making essential for managing limited resources and changing priorities.
2. It is urgently needed in developing countries like India to combat environmental degradation through sustainable technologies, environmental auditing, and eco-friendly practices.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define environmental management as a strategic decision-making framework.
b) Emphasize developmental pressures in nations like India as the key reason for management needs.

(b) What is the percentage of net sown area and net forest area of India in present times? [2 Marks]

Answer:
The net sown area of India is approximately 46.5%. The net forest area is 69.78 million hectares, which accounts for about 22.86%.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote standard land-use statistics accepted in geographical textbooks.
b) Provide both absolute area and percentage where applicable for forest cover.

(c) Mention any three advantages of well irrigation in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Wells are the simplest and cheapest source of irrigation, freeing farmers from regular canal water dues.
2. Wells provide an independent source of irrigation that can be utilized as and when required without external agency control.
3. Natural minerals such as nitrates, chlorides, and sulphates present in well water often add to soil fertility.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on economic, operational, and chemical benefits of groundwater irrigation.
b) List distinct points clearly for full allocation of marks.

(d) Name one perennial canal in each of the following states: [3 Marks]
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Punjab
(iii) Tamil Nadu

Answer:
(i) Uttar Pradesh: Upper Ganga Canal
(ii) Punjab: Upper Bari Doab Canal
(iii) Tamil Nadu: Mettur Canal System

Teacher's Note:
a) Learn major canal systems associated with key agricultural states.
b) Ensure correct spelling of irrigation project names.

Question 6.

(a) State a difference between wet farming and dry farming. [1 Mark]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast farming types primarily based on threshold annual rainfall.
b) Provide appropriate crop examples for each farming type.

(b) (i) Mention the climatic conditions required for growing coconut in India. [3 Marks]
(ii) Name two areas of coconut production in Sri Lanka.

Answer:
(i) Climatic conditions for coconut:
- Temperature: 25 °C to 30 °C.
- Rainfall: 125 to 130 cm of well-distributed rainfall.
- Frost and drought are extremely harmful to coconut cultivation.
(ii) Two areas of coconut production in Sri Lanka:
1. Negombo
2. Kurunegala

Teacher's Note:
a) Specify temperature and rainfall ranges accurately for plantation crops.
b) Include international producing regions when specifically demanded by sub-parts.

(c) Suggest any two methods for fish conservation. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Restocking of overfished waters to prevent the complete depletion of fish species in vulnerable areas.
2. Checking indiscriminate fishing by strictly prohibiting the catch of immature fish.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on sustainable fishery management practices.
b) Highlight restocking and size-regulation as key conservation measures.

(d) (i) Name a major state for the development of each of the following: [4 Marks]
(1) Thermal Power
(2) Hydroelectric Power
(ii) State two advantages of using biogas as a source of energy.

Answer:
(i) (1) Thermal Power: Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, or West Bengal
(2) Hydroelectric Power: Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, or Tamil Nadu
(ii) Two advantages of biogas:
1. It produces enriched organic fertilizers as a valuable by-product.
2. It improves sanitation and provides a smokeless, efficient cooking and lighting fuel.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link power generation types to resource availability (coalfields for thermal, mountainous terrain for hydel).
b) Highlight the dual benefits of energy generation and organic manure production in biogas plants.

Question 7.

(a) Give any three reasons to explain why railways are well developed in the Northern plains of India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The North Indian plain is a level, flat land surface which provides the most favorable and cost-effective terrain for laying railway tracks.
2. The region is densely populated with highly developed agriculture and industries, generating heavy passenger and freight traffic.
3. Extensive urbanization and high economic activity necessitate dense transport networks to move agricultural produce from grain markets across the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Correlate relief (flat plains) and economic factors (population density, agriculture) with transport density.
b) List distinct structural and economic reasons.

(b) Give one point of difference between Golden Quadrilateral Highways and National Highways. [2 Marks]

Answer:
National Highways are main arterial roads connecting state capitals, major cities, and ports, constructed and maintained by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD). In contrast, the Golden Quadrilateral comprises specific six-lane super highways connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata, implemented specifically by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).

Teacher's Note:
a) Differentiate based on administrative scope and specific corridor design.
b) Mention the executing authorities for precision.

(c) Explain the relationship between transport and industrial development. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Cheap and efficient transport is essential for the localization and growth of industries by transporting raw materials and labor to manufacturing sites.
2. Transport networks are vital for distributing finished manufactured goods to consumer markets.
3. Heavy industries (such as iron and steel) rely entirely on cheap bulk transport to move massive raw materials like coal, iron ore, and manganese.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the interdependence of industrial agglomeration and transport infrastructure.
b) Cite heavy raw material transport as a primary example.

(d) What are the two ways in which Radio can be considered as a powerful means of communication? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It provides extensive news, educational information, and entertainment across a vast network.
2. It overcomes linguistic and geographical barriers by broadcasting in numerous languages and dialects, reaching almost the entire population in a diverse country like India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the wide reach and linguistic inclusivity of radio broadcasting.
b) Focus on its role in mass education and information dissemination.

Question 8.

(a) Name a major industrial region of India and state any three factors that are responsible for the growth of this region. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Mumbai - Pune Industrial Region.
Three factors responsible for its growth:
1. Excellent connectivity via roads and railways facilitating the transport of raw cotton and finished goods.
2. Ready availability of cheap hydroelectricity harnessed from the Western Ghats.
3. Abundant supply of cheap labor drawn from surrounding regions and the presence of Mumbai port for international trade.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name a recognized industrial cluster and list locational advantages systematically.
b) Include power, transport, and labor factors for comprehensive coverage.

(b) State two significant factors influencing the location of Aluminium industry in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Abundant supply of bauxite, as the production of 1 metric ton of aluminium requires approximately 6 metric tons of bauxite.
2. Continuous and cheap supply of electric power, as smelting consumes huge amounts of electricity (about 18,573 kWh per ton).

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify aluminium as a weight-losing and power-intensive industry.
b) Quote quantitative ratios (bauxite to aluminium and electricity consumption) for high marks.

(c) Name any one important centre of production for the following: [2 Marks]
(i) Ships
(ii) Cement
(iii) Automobiles
(iv) Aircrafts

Answer:
(i) Ships: Garden Reach Workshop at Kolkata
(ii) Cement: Kymore in Madhya Pradesh
(iii) Automobiles: Gurgaon in Haryana
(iv) Aircrafts: Bengaluru in Karnataka

Teacher's Note:
a) Match major manufacturing industries with their prominent production centers.
b) Provide precise plant locations.

(d) State two advantages of tourism in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It stimulates the development and improvement of local infrastructure.
2. It fosters the growth of local handicrafts, cultural activities, and heritage preservation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on infrastructural and cultural benefits of tourism.
b) Keep answers distinct from economic foreign exchange points if already covered elsewhere.

Question 9.

(a) Explain the meaning of a planning region. [2 Marks]

Answer:
A planning region is a self-contained spatial unit having a functional coherence that not only supports life within the region but also radiates unifying forces, enabling the region to act as a unified space to facilitate effective regional planning and development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define planning regions based on functional integration and developmental administration.
b) Use standard geographical terminology such as functional coherence and unifying forces.

(b) Name two centres each in Chhattisgarh where the following are mined: [2 Marks]
(i) iron ore
(ii) bauxite

Answer:
(i) Iron Ore: Bailadila in Bastar district and Dali Rajhara in Durg district.
(ii) Bauxite: Surguja and Raigarh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Memorize mineral-rich mining nodes associated with specific states.
b) Include district names where possible for enhanced precision.

(c) Why was the state of Chhattisgarh created? Name two of its bordering states. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Chhattisgarh was carved out of Madhya Pradesh for administrative convenience, socio-economic harmony, and functional regional unity.
2. Two bordering states: Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the socio-administrative reasons behind the formation of new states in India.
b) Ensure correct political geography for bordering states.

(d) Mention three factors which have influenced the development of the Electronic City of Bengaluru. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Favorable policy incentives provided by both state and central governments.
2. Strategic geographical location in the peninsular region supported by robust transport connectivity.
3. Massive capital investment by numerous domestic and foreign multinational corporations establishing IT and electronic industries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight governmental support, locational advantages, and FDI inflows as drivers of IT hubs.
b) Present points clearly in a structured manner.