ISC Class 12 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2014 with Solutions

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ISC Class 12 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2014 with Solutions

 

PART-I (30 Marks)
Answer all questions.

 

SECTION-A

 

Question 1. [20]

 

(i) Mention the latitudinal and the longitudinal extent of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Latitudinal extent: 6° 45′ North to 37° 6′ North Latitude.
Longitudinal extent: 68° 7′ East to 97° 25′ East Longitude.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember that India's mainland starts from 8° 4′ N, but including the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Indira Point), the southernmost latitude is 6° 45′ N.
b) Students often miss writing the direction units (North and East), which makes the coordinates incomplete.

 

(ii) What is a subcontinent? Why is India referred to as an Indian subcontinent? [2 Marks]

Answer:
A landmass which is separated from the rest of the continent by water bodies or mountains is called a subcontinent.
India is called a subcontinent because of its: (a) vast size, (b) diversity, (c) the ice-covered lofty Himalayas in the North, (d) the vast Indo-Ganga plain to its south, (e) the Thar desert, (f) the uneven Deccan plateau, and (g) high temperature and heavy rainfall from the tropical monsoon climate.

Teacher's Note:
a) A subcontinent possesses distinct continental characteristics on a smaller geographical scale.
b) Ensure you mention both the physical isolation factors (mountains, seas) and internal diversity when answering this question.

 

(iii) Explain the term braided river. Give an example. [2 Marks]

Answer:
The river carries a heavy load, some of which is deposited on its bed. This may produce mounds or eyots which divide the river into several channels. When this happens, the river is said to be braided.
Example: The river Kosi or the lower course of river Ganga.

Teacher's Note:
a) Braided channels typically form in rivers with high sediment load and steep slopes that flatten out.
b) Always provide a standard geographical example like the Kosi River to secure full marks.

 

(iv) What is meant by Break in Monsoons? Why does it occur? [2 Marks]

Answer:
When the south-west monsoon fails to bring rainfall for two or more weeks and there is a dry spell in the rainy season, it is called the break in the monsoon.
This break is caused due to:
1. Failure of the tropical depressions.
2. Continuous rainfall low pressure trough changes to high pressure, the monsoon trough is dislocated and rain-bearing winds change their direction.

Teacher's Note:
a) Monsoonal rainfall is not continuous and experiences wet and dry spells known as breaks.
b) Clearly state both the definition and the atmospheric disruption causes for complete credit.

 

(v) Mention any two problems caused due to the growth of large cities. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Unemployment: Rapid migration leads to a lack of appropriate jobs, adding to urban unemployment as rural migrants are often unskilled.
2. Pollution: Uncontrolled growth of cities leads to unprecedented environmental pollution including air, water, and land pollution.
(Note: The marking scheme also accepts Growth of Slums and Squatter Settlements or Urban Sprawl).

Teacher's Note:
a) Urbanization brings severe socio-economic and environmental challenges due to infrastructural overload.
b) Mentioning any two distinct problems with brief explanations is sufficient for full marks.

 

(vi) Why is watershed management important? Name the water harvesting programme implemented in Andhra Pradesh. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Watershed management is important because it conserves water resources, helps increase agricultural production, and stops ecological degradation by supporting drinking water, irrigation, fisheries, and afforestation.
The water harvesting program implemented in Andhra Pradesh is Neeru Meeru (Water and You).

Teacher's Note:
a) Watershed management integrates soil and water conservation to build community resilience against drought.
b) Ensure both parts (importance and specific state scheme name) are answered accurately.

 

(vii) Name any two narrow gauge railway lines present in the Himalayan region. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Kalka to Simla
2. Siliguri to Darjeeling

Teacher's Note:
a) Narrow gauge railways are engineered specifically to navigate steep mountain gradients.
b) Give exact terminal stations as recognized by Indian Railways.

 

(viii) Name any two important means of mass communication. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Radio and television.
2. Print media like newspapers and periodicals.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mass communication reaches vast audiences simultaneously, playing a vital role in education and dissemination of information.
b) Keep the examples straightforward and clearly categorized.

 

(ix) Name the largest coalfield of Chhattisgarh. State its importance. [2 Marks]

Answer:
The largest coalfield of Chhattisgarh is Korba Coalfield.
Importance: It supplies coal to the Korba thermal power station and the Bhilai steel plant.

Teacher's Note:
a) Chhattisgarh is a leading energy and mineral-rich state in India.
b) Linking the coalfield to its major industrial consumers demonstrates thorough preparation.

 

(x) Study the Temperature-Rainfall graph of station X below and answer the questions that follow :
(a) Is the location of station X Inland or coastal ? Give a reason for your answer.
(b) Which branch of the South West Monsoon brings rain from the month of June to September? [2 Marks]

[Figure: Line graph showing temperature curve ranging between 22 degree C and 30 degree C with peak in May, and bar graph showing rainfall bars concentrated heavily from June to September peaking in July above 600 mm.]

Answer:
(a) Yes, it is Coastal: The annual range of temperature is only 6°C, which shows the moderating influence of the sea.
(b) The Arabian Sea branch of the South-West Monsoon.

Teacher's Note:
a) A low annual temperature range (difference between the warmest and coldest months) is a classic indicator of maritime/coastal climate.
b) Carefully read the axes values and monsoon arrival patterns to interpret climatographs correctly.

 

SECTION-B

 

Question 2. [10]
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Mark the Cardamom Hills.
(b) Mark the Bomdi La Pass.
(c) Shade a drought-prone area in Western India.
(d) Shade a region along the Eastern coast where deltaic forests are found.
(e) Mark and name a coalfield in Jharkhand.
(f) Mark and name the city where Hindalco is located.
(g) Trace the course and name the river on which Bhakra-Nangal Hydroelectric power station is set up.
(h) Shade and name the state where Tank irrigation is mainly practised.
(i) Mark the port of Marmagao.
(j) Trace the route of National Highway 2. Name any one of its terminal towns.
Note: All the map work, including legend (Index) should be done on the map sheet only.

[Figure: Outline political map of India showing markings for Cardamom Hills at the southern tip, Bomdi La Pass in Arunachal Pradesh, drought-prone area in western Rajasthan/Gujarat, deltaic forests in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, Jharia coalfield in Jharkhand, Renukoot Hindalco plant in Uttar Pradesh, River Sutlej with Bhakra-Nangal, Andhra Pradesh shaded for tank irrigation, Marmagao port in Goa, and National Highway 2 connecting Delhi and Kolkata.]

Answer:
Map-based question. All locations and features are marked as specified in the official map key above.

Teacher's Note:
a) Map questions require precise labeling and clear demarcation using standard symbols or shading in the index.
b) Practice labeling physiographic divisions, passes, transport corridors, and industrial locations regularly on outline maps.

 

PART-II (40 Marks)
Answer any four questions.

 

Question 3.

 

(a) Explain the formation of Himalayas with reference to the theory of Plate Tectonics. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. According to the plate tectonic theory, the Himalayan ranges were formed when the Indian plate was driven northwards and pushed beneath the Eurasian plate.
2. With the advance of the Indian plate towards the north, the Tethys sea started contracting about 65 to 70 million years ago.
3. About 30 to 60 million years ago, the two plates came closer and the Tethys sea crust began to fracture into thrust edges, leading to the emergence of the Himalayan ranges about 20 to 30 million years ago.

Teacher's Note:
a) The collision of the continental plates resulted in the folding of sediments deposited in the Tethys Geosyncline.
b) Mentioning the chronological timeline adds scientific accuracy to the answer.

 

(b) State two differences between Himalayan and Peninsular river systems. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Rivers of Peninsular RegionHimalayan Rivers
1. The rivers depend entirely upon rain water and are seasonal.The rivers originate from the glaciers and receive water from both glaciers and rainfall.

Teacher's Note:
a) Himalayan rivers are perennial, whereas Peninsular rivers are mostly non-perennial or seasonal.
b) Presenting differences in a comparative tabular format is ideal for clarity and scoring.

 

(c) List three measures undertaken by the government to conserve and develop forestry in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Government has allocated funds in the Five Year Plans to enhance forest conservation and its sustainability, ensuring a sustainable supply of goods and services for dependent populations.
2. The Government has enacted the Forest Conservation Act to check indiscriminate deforestation, making it more stringent by prescribing punishments for violations.
3. The Government has adopted an integrated forest protection scheme to control forest fires, strengthen infrastructure, and protect sacred groves and unique vegetation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Legislative acts and budgetary allocations are critical tools for state-led environmental conservation.
b) Point-wise listing with specific legislative and administrative measures fetches full marks.

 

(d) Write any two objectives of urban forestry. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Reduction of environmental pollution in urban areas.
2. Provision of recreation and improvement of aesthetic values.

Teacher's Note:
a) Urban forestry involves growing and managing trees within and around urban settlements to improve urban ecology.
b) Keep the objectives concise and ecologically focused.

 

Question 4.

 

(a) State any two factors responsible for isolated settlement in the Northeastern States of India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The rugged and inaccessible mountains in the north restrict the availability of land for agriculture, development of transport, industries, and other economic activities.
2. Excessive heavy rainfall followed by soil erosion tends to discourage concentration of population in the northeastern region.

Teacher's Note:
a) Settlement patterns are heavily dictated by terrain topography and local climatic constraints.
b) Physical barriers naturally lead to dispersed or isolated rural settlement types.

 

(b) Give three reasons for the large-scale migration from rural to urban areas. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Employment: People migrate in large numbers as urban areas provide vast scope of employment in industries, trade, transport, and services.
2. Education: Rural areas lack educational facilities, especially higher education, forcing people to move to urban centers.
3. Marriage: Social customs require individuals (especially women) to move to their spouse's place of residence, often in cities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Push and pull factors drive rural-urban migration in developing economies.
b) Clearly heading each point (Employment, Education, Marriage) ensures structured evaluation by examiners.

 

(c) Define the term sex ratio. Mention any two reasons for the low sex ratio in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per thousand males in the population.
Reasons for the low sex ratio:
1. Son preference: Male children often receive preferential treatment while female children are neglected.
2. With small family norms, many young couples do not go in for a second child if the first child happens to be a male.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sex ratio is a key demographic indicator reflecting gender equality and social attitudes.
b) Ensure you provide the exact demographic definition (per thousand males) before stating the socio-cultural reasons.

 

(d) What are the two negative impacts of the high percentage of non-working population on the Indian economy? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Low Economic Progress: Due to a large number of people being unemployed or dependent, there is poverty and a low standard of living.
2. Poor Social Welfare: It corresponds to a high dependency ratio (especially youth dependency) placing a heavy financial burden on the working population.

Teacher's Note:
a) High dependency ratios divert productive capital toward consumption and sustenance.
b) Economic stagnation and heavy dependency burdens are direct consequences of high non-working populations.

 

Question 5.

 

(a) (i) State two reasons for the rapid reduction in area irrigated by tanks in India. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Tanks cover large areas of cultivable land which could otherwise be used for direct crop cultivation.
2. Tanks dry up during dry seasons and fail to provide irrigation when it is needed the most.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tank irrigation is declining due to siltation, loss of catchment areas, and the rise of tube well irrigation.
b) Sub-part (ii) follows below as part of Question 5(a).

 

(ii) Mention any two geographical conditions required for the setting up of tanks. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The region must have impermeable hard rocks which will not allow percolation of water easily.
2. The region must receive sufficient rainfall to naturally fill the depressions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural depressions and impermeable rock strata are prerequisites for storing surface runoff in tanks.
b) Keep geographical conditions distinct and scientifically grounded.

 

(b) (i) What is meant by Net Sown Area? [4 Marks]

Answer:
The total area of land used for cultivation at least once in a year.

Teacher's Note:
a) Net sown area represents the actual physical land cultivated in an agricultural year, distinct from gross cropped area.
b) Sub-parts (ii) and (iii) follow below.

 

(ii) State the significance of Net Sown Area in India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The net sown area is the primary means to meet the food and other agricultural requirements of the rapidly increasing population in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) It indicates the total extent of land put to agricultural use.
b) Connect the significance directly to food security and population demands.

 

(iii) What are the two adverse effects of small and fragmented farm holdings on agricultural productivity? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Low agricultural productivity and a backward state of agriculture.
2. A lot of time and labor is wasted in moving seeds, manure, implements, and cattle from one fragmented piece of land to another.

Teacher's Note:
a) Land fragmentation prevents mechanization and efficient water management.
b) Clearly state both the productivity impact and the logistical waste involved.

 

(c) Enumerate any two important aspects of environmental management. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Encouraging watershed development, rainwater harvesting, water recycling, and conjunctive use of water for sustaining water supply in the long run.
2. Analyzing the impact of developmental plans on the environment and formulating national and regional environmental policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Environmental management balances resource utilization with ecological preservation.
b) Mentioning both water conservation and impact assessment covers the core aspects.

 

Question 6.

 

(a) What are the two climatic conditions required for the cultivation of groundnuts in India? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Temperature: 20°C to 30°C.
2. Rainfall: 50 cm to 70 cm. Groundnut is highly susceptible to frost, prolonged drought, continuous rain, and stagnant water; a dry winter is needed at the time of ripening.

Teacher's Note:
a) Groundnut is primarily a kharif crop in most parts of India requiring warm temperatures and moderate rainfall.
b) Mentioning sensitivity to water stagnation is a crucial value point.

 

(b) Give three reasons for the high Jute production in India and Bangladesh. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Jute requires a hot and humid climate with temperatures between 24°C and 35°C, and rainfall over 150 cm.
2. High relative humidity of nearly 90% is favorable for its growth.
3. Well-drained alluvial soils, frequently renewed by annual floods, are best suited for jute cultivation, conditions which are abundantly available in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.

Teacher's Note:
a) Jute thrives in tropical deltaic floodplains with abundant water and fertile silt.
b) Grouping temperature, rainfall, and soil requirements secures full marks.

 

(c) Discuss any three problems associated with the use of thermal power. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Thermal electricity is produced from exhaustible and non-renewable fossil fuels like coal, petroleum, and natural gas, involving recurring fuel costs.
2. The process of generating electricity involves burning fuel, which causes severe air and water pollution.
3. Burning coal leaves a large amount of waste in the form of fly ash, the disposal of which adds to environmental degradation and production costs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Thermal power relies on non-renewable resources and has high carbon footprints.
b) Pointing out resource depletion, pollution, and fly ash disposal covers the major environmental and economic challenges.

 

(d) Name any two river valleys responsible for the bulk production of coal in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Damodar Valley
2. Mahanadi Valley
(Note: The marking scheme also accepts Godavari and Wardha valleys).

Teacher's Note:
a) Gondwana coal deposits in India are primarily concentrated along river basin troughs.
b) Naming major river valleys like Damodar and Mahanadi demonstrates core economic geography knowledge.

 

Question 7.

 

(a) Briefly explain the three advantages of using roadways in comparison to railways. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Flexibility: Road transport is more flexible than rail as buses, trucks, and cars can be stopped anywhere and at any time, whereas trains stop only at designated stations.
2. Terrain adaptability: Roads can negotiate high gradients and sharp turns to reach hilly and remote areas where trains cannot operate.
3. Door-to-door service: Road transport provides door-to-door service, easily connecting farms, fields, factories, and markets.

Teacher's Note:
a) Roadways provide feeder services to railways and ports, making them indispensable for short-haul transport.
b) Highlighting flexibility, terrain negotiation, and door-to-door connectivity ensures a complete answer.

 

(b) Mention any two products which are transported through a pipeline. State any one advantage of this method of transportation. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Products transported through pipelines: Crude oil and petroleum products (Note: Water, gas, and milk are also accepted).
Advantage: Pipelines can be constructed even across water bodies or difficult terrains and require very little maintenance once installed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pipelines are the most efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances without transit losses.
b) Ensure you answer both parts: naming the products and stating the operational advantage.

 

(c) Name any two major ports located on the Western Coast of India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mumbai
2. Marmagao
(Note: Mangalore and Kochi are also accepted).

Teacher's Note:
a) India's western coast hosts several deep-water natural harbors engaged in international trade.
b) Memorize major ports coast-wise to avoid confusion between eastern and western seaports.

 

(d) Discuss the role of communication as an infrastructural resource in the country’s development. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The communication system contributes to economic development, strengthens social relationships, and promotes cultural unity.
2. During calamities or emergencies, instant communication flashes news globally so that relief can be rushed immediately.

Teacher's Note:
a) Modern communication infrastructure bridges geographical distances and integrates national markets.
b) Mentioning both economic integration and emergency/disaster management highlights its multifaceted importance.

 

Question 8.

 

(a) Discuss the two ways in which cement industry is important for the growth of a country. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Cement is indispensable for all building and construction works, making it a critical infrastructure core industry.
2. It plays a significant role in overall economic growth as India has emerged as a major exporter of cement, earning foreign exchange.

Teacher's Note:
a) The cement industry's growth directly reflects the pace of infrastructural and real estate development in an economy.
b) State both domestic infrastructural utility and international export significance.

 

(b) State any two factors that determine the location of the readymade garment industry in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Presence of market demand for ethnic designs and color combinations.
2. Availability of power and energy.

Teacher's Note:
a) The garment industry is labor-intensive and market-oriented.
b) Mentioning market proximity and power/infrastructure covers key localization factors.

 

(c) State any three advantages of setting up Mini steel plants. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is easy to construct such plants as their gestation period is short.
2. They require less capital investment compared to integrated steel plants.
3. They use electric furnaces for processing scrap iron, which is eco-friendly.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mini steel plants decentralize steel production and utilize local scrap metal.
b) Emphasize low capital cost, short gestation period, and eco-friendly electric furnace technology.

 

(d) Name the following : [3 Marks]
(i) A pilgrimage centre in Himachal Pradesh.
(ii) A historic place in Rajasthan.
(iii) An important hill resort of West Bengal.

Answer:
(i) Shimla / Kangra / Kullu / Manikaran (Any one)
(ii) Bikaner / Jaipur / Jodhpur / Udaipur (Any one)
(iii) Darjeeling / Kalimpong (Any one)

Teacher's Note:
a) Geographical identification questions require accurate regional association.
b) Giving widely recognized standard examples ensures credit.

 

Question 9.

 

(a) With reference to Haldia Port, answer the following questions : [3 Marks]
(i) At the confluence of which two rivers is it located?
(ii) Why was the port developed?

Answer:
(i) Haldia port is located at the confluence of the Hooghly and Haldi rivers.
(ii) It was developed to relieve heavy congestion at Kolkata port and to enable the docking of larger vessels that cannot enter Kolkata port due to draft limitations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Haldia functions as a subsidiary port to Kolkata, handling bulk cargo and petroleum products.
b) Mentioning both river confluence and decongestion purpose covers all marking points.

 

(b) What is a micro region? Give an example of it. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Micro regions are the smallest of all planning regions and have the potential for development of at least one specialization of production cycle of great significance.
Example: Agriculture in Punjab, or Tourism in Jammu and Kashmir.

Teacher's Note:
a) Regional planning hierarchy spans macro, meso, and micro levels based on scale and resource homogeneity.
b) Provide both the exact definition and a clear practical example.

 

(c) Which river drains into the Chhattisgarh basin? What is the predominant crop of this region? [2 Marks]

Answer:
The river draining into the Chhattisgarh basin is Mahanadi (Godavari and Indrawati are also associated with regional drainage).
The predominant crop of this region is rice.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Chhattisgarh basin is famously known as the rice bowl of central India due to extensive paddy cultivation.
b) Link the river basin hydrology directly to its staple agricultural produce.

 

(d) Why does the need for the development of a region arise? Give any three points in support of your answer. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To improve economic, social, political, and environmental conditions of the society present in the region.
2. To increase general productivity levels, per capita income, and the economic efficiency of workers.
3. To eliminate poverty and achieve an overall improvement in the quality of life.

Teacher's Note:
a) Regional development aims at reducing regional disparities and uplifting marginalized areas.
b) Structuring the answer around productivity growth, poverty alleviation, and quality of life ensures full marks.

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