CBSE Class 10 Social Science Social Science (Industries, Nationalism, Federalism, Economy) MCQs Set 08

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for Class 10 Social Science: All Chapters

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Questions

Choose the correct option.

Q1. Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material? [1 mark]
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Cement. Limestone is the main raw material of the cement industry, along with silica, alumina and gypsum.

Teacher's Note:
1. Cement is made by heating limestone with other minerals.
2. Remember cement as the limestone-based industry.

Q2. Oil India Limited is a ______. [1 mark]
(a) Public Sector Industry
(b) Private Sector Industry
(c) Co-operative Sector Industry
(d) Joint Sector Industry

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Public Sector Industry. It is owned and run by the Government of India, so it is a public sector undertaking.

Teacher's Note:
1. Public sector industries are owned by the government.
2. ONGC and Oil India are standard examples.

Q3. Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material? [1 mark]
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Jute
(d) Steel

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Aluminium. Bauxite is the ore from which aluminium is extracted.

Teacher's Note:
1. Alumina is first obtained from bauxite and then smelted into aluminium.
2. Match every industry with its key raw material.

Q4. The northern terminal station of the North-South Corridor is: [1 mark]
(a) Jammu
(b) Srinagar
(c) Baramulla
(d) Leh

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Srinagar. The North-South Corridor runs from Srinagar to Kanyakumari.

Teacher's Note:
1. It joins Srinagar with Kanyakumari through Delhi, Nagpur, Hyderabad and Bengaluru.
2. The East-West Corridor joins Silchar and Porbandar.

Q5. In which year was air transport nationalised in India? [1 mark]
(a) 1951
(b) 1952
(c) 1953
(d) 1963

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 1953. Air transport was nationalised in 1953 and Air India became the national carrier.

Teacher's Note:
1. Indian Airlines and Air India were created after nationalisation.
2. Learn this date along with other lifeline milestones.

Q6. Running water cuts through clayey soils and makes deep channels called: [1 mark]
(a) Gullies
(b) Terraces
(c) Sheet wash
(d) Shelter belts

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Gullies. Such deep channels are gullies, and land cut up by them is called bad land or ravines.

Teacher's Note:
1. Gully erosion makes land unfit for cultivation.
2. Sheet erosion, in contrast, removes a thin layer of soil over a wide area.

Q7. In which kind of rocks are minerals found in veins and lodes? [1 mark]
(a) Sedimentary rocks only
(b) Igneous and metamorphic rocks
(c) Alluvial deposits
(d) Residual surface rocks

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Igneous and metamorphic rocks. Minerals such as tin, copper, zinc and lead occur as veins and lodes in igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Teacher's Note:
1. Veins are thin occurrences and lodes are thick ones.
2. Sedimentary rocks hold coal, potash salt and sodium salt in layers.

Q8. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as: [1 mark]
(a) Fallow land
(b) Gross cropped area
(c) Cultivable waste
(d) Grazing land

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Gross cropped area. Net sown area plus the area sown more than once gives the gross cropped area.

Teacher's Note:
1. Gross cropped area counts a field once for every crop sown on it.
2. Net sown area counts each field only once.

Q9. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? [1 mark]
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay – Vande Mataram
(b) B.R. Ambedkar – President of the Muslim League
(c) Sir Muhammad Iqbal – Famous image of Bharat Mata
(d) Natesa Sastri – Depressed Classes Association

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay – Vande Mataram. Bankim Chandra wrote the hymn Vande Mataram; Ambedkar founded the Depressed Classes Association, Iqbal was the Muslim League president and Abanindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata.

Teacher's Note:
1. Symbols and writers of nationalism are often asked as matching items.
2. Natesa Sastri compiled The Folklore of Southern India.

Q10. The Swaraj Party was set up within the Congress by: [1 mark]
(a) Gandhiji and Nehru
(b) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
(c) Subhas Bose and Patel
(d) Tilak and Gokhale

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed it to argue for a return to council politics.

Teacher's Note:
1. They wanted to take part in the provincial councils and oppose colonial policies from within.
2. This followed the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Q11. Romanticism refers to a: [1 mark]
(a) Cultural movement
(b) Religious movement
(c) Political movement
(d) Literary movement only

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Cultural movement. Romanticism was a European cultural movement that stressed emotion, intuition and mystical feeling and tried to create a sense of shared national past.

Teacher's Note:
1. Romantics criticised the glorification of reason.
2. Herder saw folk songs and poetry as the true spirit of a nation.

Q12. Which of the following pairs is correct? [1 mark]
(a) Treaty of Constantinople – recognised Greece as an independent nation
(b) Napoleonic Code – brought conservative regimes back to power
(c) Liberalism – transfer of sovereignty from monarch to citizens
(d) Treaty of Vienna – right to property for the privileged

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Treaty of Constantinople – recognised Greece as an independent nation. The Treaty of Constantinople (1832) recognised Greece as independent; the Napoleonic Code protected the right to property and the Treaty of Vienna (1815) restored conservative regimes.

Teacher's Note:
1. Match each treaty or code with its main effect.
2. The French Revolution transferred sovereignty from the monarch to the citizens.

Q13. Who was proclaimed German Emperor at Versailles in January 1871? [1 mark]
(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Kaiser William I of Prussia
(c) Napoleon III
(d) Frederick the Great

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Kaiser William I of Prussia. William I of Prussia was proclaimed emperor in the Hall of Mirrors at Versailles after the defeat of France.

Teacher's Note:
1. Bismarck was the architect of unification but not the emperor.
2. The ceremony was held after Prussia's victory over France.

Q14. From which trade did early Indian entrepreneurs such as Dwarkanath Tagore make their fortune? [1 mark]
(a) Textile trade
(b) China trade
(c) Tea trade
(d) Heavy industries

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) China trade. Many early entrepreneurs earned their capital from the China trade, which included opium exports.

Teacher's Note:
1. Later some of them invested in industry.
2. Others made money from the Burma and Middle East trade.

Q15. Consider two statements. A: Power sharing is good for democracy. B: It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups. Which option is correct? [1 mark]
(a) A is true but B is false
(b) Both A and B are true
(c) Both A and B are false
(d) A is false but B is true

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Both A and B are true. Power sharing reduces tension among groups and also respects the democratic idea of sharing power with those affected.

Teacher's Note:
1. Both ideas are given as prudential and moral reasons for power sharing.
2. Belgium and Sri Lanka show the two contrasting outcomes.

Q16. Sinhala was recognised as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an Act of: [1 mark]
(a) 1948
(b) 1956
(c) 1960
(d) 1971

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 1956. The 1956 Act made Sinhala the sole official language and ignored Tamil, which caused resentment.

Teacher's Note:
1. The Act also favoured Sinhala applicants in government jobs.
2. This increased the alienation of Sri Lankan Tamils.

Q17. The third level of government in Belgium is the: [1 mark]
(a) Provincial government
(b) Community government
(c) Federal court
(d) Municipal board

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Community government. Belgium has the central government, regional governments and a third community government elected by each language community.

Teacher's Note:
1. The community government looks after cultural, educational and language matters.
2. It is elected by people of one language community living in different regions.

Q18. If a law made by the Centre clashes with a state law on a subject in the Concurrent List: [1 mark]
(a) The state law prevails
(b) The central law prevails
(c) Both laws prevail in their own areas
(d) The Supreme Court must decide each time

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) The central law prevails. For subjects in the Concurrent List, the law of the Union government prevails in case of a conflict.

Teacher's Note:
1. Education and forests are examples of Concurrent subjects.
2. State governments have exclusive power on State List subjects.

Q19. Banking and Defence are subjects of the: [1 mark]
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary List

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Union List. Subjects of national importance such as defence, banking, foreign affairs and currency are on the Union List.

Teacher's Note:
1. Only Parliament can make laws on Union List subjects.
2. Police and agriculture belong to the State List.

Q20. One-third of the seats are reserved for women in: [1 mark]
(a) The Union Cabinet
(b) The Supreme Court
(c) Panchayati Raj bodies
(d) The Election Commission

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Panchayati Raj bodies. The constitutional amendments of 1992 reserved one-third of seats for women in rural and urban local bodies.

Teacher's Note:
1. Reservation in local bodies has increased women's participation in politics.
2. Women's representation in the Cabinet is not fixed by law.

Q21. The proportion of the population aged 7 years or above who can read and write with understanding is the: [1 mark]
(a) Literacy rate
(b) Net attendance ratio
(c) Sex ratio
(d) Infant mortality rate

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Literacy rate. This is the standard definition of the literacy rate used in the Census.

Teacher's Note:
1. Literacy rate is an important indicator of human development.
2. Kerala has one of the highest literacy rates in India.

Q22. Which helps maintain the nutritional level of poor people by providing food at lower cost? [1 mark]
(a) BMI
(b) PDS
(c) GNI
(d) HDI

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) PDS. The Public Distribution System supplies foodgrains at subsidised prices through ration shops.

Teacher's Note:
1. PDS is also used to build the buffer stock of foodgrains.
2. BMI, GNI and HDI are indicators, not schemes.

Q23. Which of these is a feature of the unorganised sector? [1 mark]
(a) Fixed working hours
(b) Paid holidays
(c) Insecure employment
(d) Registered with the government

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Insecure employment. In the unorganised sector jobs are low paid, irregular and insecure, and rules are not followed.

Teacher's Note:
1. Organised sector jobs have fixed hours and benefits.
2. Unorganised workers need protection on wages, safety and health.

Q24. Which Act is also known as the Right to Work? [1 mark]
(a) Right to Information Act
(b) MGNREGA 2005
(c) Consumer Protection Act
(d) Right to Education Act

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) MGNREGA 2005. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 guarantees 100 days of employment per year to rural households.

Teacher's Note:
1. If the government fails to provide work it must give an unemployment allowance.
2. It is an important anti-poverty programme.

Q25. The type of unemployment in which more persons are engaged in a task than required is called: [1 mark]
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Open unemployment
(d) Educated unemployment

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Disguised unemployment. This is disguised or underemployment, seen mostly among agricultural workers who share the same land.

Teacher's Note:
1. If some workers are removed, total output does not fall.
2. It is common in small family farms.

Q26. Assertion (A): Rich households receive more formal lending, whereas poor households receive more informal lending.
Reason (R): Cheap and affordable credit for all is important for the development of a country. [1 mark]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Both statements are true, but R does not explain why the rich get more formal loans, which depends on collateral and documentation.

Teacher's Note:
1. The reason states a general need and not the cause of the pattern.
2. Read both statements separately before judging the link.

Q27. All banks act as a mediator between: [1 mark]
(a) Rural people and urban people
(b) Literates and illiterates
(c) People and government
(d) Depositors and borrowers

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Depositors and borrowers. Banks collect deposits from savers and lend the money to borrowers.

Teacher's Note:
1. They earn by charging a higher interest rate on loans than on deposits.
2. Demand deposits can be withdrawn on demand.

Q28. Find the incorrect statement. [1 mark]
(a) RBI issues currency notes on behalf of the central government
(b) RBI controls the monetary policy of the country
(c) RBI supervises informal sources of credit
(d) RBI monitors whether banks maintain the required cash balance

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) RBI supervises informal sources of credit. The RBI supervises formal sources of credit such as banks; there is no supervision of informal lenders.

Teacher's Note:
1. Moneylenders and traders can charge high interest rates because nobody supervises them.
2. This is a reason to expand formal credit.

Q29. Foreign trade gives more choices to: [1 mark]
(a) Producers only
(b) Sellers
(c) Buyers
(d) The government only

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Buyers. Foreign trade lets consumers choose among goods produced in their own country and other countries.

Teacher's Note:
1. Producers also gain by reaching markets beyond their own country.
2. Prices of imported goods often become competitive.

Q30. Assertion (A): If the cost of production for an MNC is low, it can earn greater profits.
Reason (R): MNCs set up factories in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources. [1 mark]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

View Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. MNCs set up production where labour and resources are cheap, which lowers their cost and raises profit.

Teacher's Note:
1. R directly gives the reason behind A.
2. Low cost of production is a key motive for MNC investment.

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Where can I access latest CBSE Class 10 Social Science Social Science (Industries, Nationalism, Federalism, Economy) MCQs Set 08?

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