CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 2026 27 with Solutions PDF Download

SECTION A

HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Most conservative regimes set up in 1815 introduced strict censorship laws. What was the primary purpose of these laws?
a. To regulate information written about the rulers and their policies.
b. To control the growing demand for modernising the army.
c. To restrict the spread of ideas of liberty and freedom expressed through newspapers and other publications.
d. To prevent the circulation of views suggesting that modernisation could strengthen traditional institutions.
Options: [1 Mark]
A. Only a and b
B. Only a and c
C. Only b and d
D. Only c and d

Answer: B. Only a and c

Teacher's Note:
a) Censorship laws controlled what newspapers, books, plays and songs said about the rulers and their policies.
b) The main target was the spread of liberal ideas of liberty and freedom linked with the French Revolution.
c) Modernising the army was not the aim of censorship, so rule out options with b.

2. The Picture shows a procession from which of the following movements? Choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
A. Non-Cooperation Movement
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. Khilafat Movement
D. Quit India Movement

[Figure: Black and white photograph of a procession, with a large crowd of people lined up on both sides of a wide street and a group of marchers moving down the middle. Source: India and Contemporary World-II.]

Answer: D. Quit India Movement

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme identifies this procession as part of the Quit India Movement.
b) Study the pictures in the textbook along with their captions, as picture-based MCQs are common.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 2)

Who among the following people established the 'Swaraj Party'? [1 Mark]
A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Bipin Chandra Pal
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
D. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

Answer: D. C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

Teacher's Note:
a) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress after the Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn.
b) They wanted to return to council politics and oppose British policies from inside the councils.

3. Read the statements given below and choose the correct answer:
Statement I: A good example of thriving pre- modern commercial and cultural ties connecting far flung regions of the world are silk routes.
Statement II: The significance of Chinese silk cargoes traveling the silk route to the west is indicated by the term "silk routes". [1 Mark]
A. Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
B. Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (I) and (II) are incorrect

Answer: C. Both (I) and (II) are correct

Teacher's Note:
a) The silk routes linked Asia with Europe and northern Africa through trade and cultural exchange.
b) The name comes from the importance of Chinese silk cargoes that travelled along these routes to the west.

4. Arrange the following events in chronological order, from the earliest to the latest.
I. Print culture created the conditions for the French Revolution.
II. Martin Luther's writings led to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.
III. Menocchio reinterpreted the message of the Bible.
IV. Johann Gutenberg invented the Printing press.
Choose the correct option- [1 Mark]
A. III II I IV
B. I II III IV
C. IV III II I
D. IV II III I

Answer: D. IV II III I

Teacher's Note:
a) Gutenberg's press came first (1448), then Luther's Ninety Five Theses (1517).
b) Menocchio was questioned in the later sixteenth century, and the French Revolution came in 1789.
c) Fix one anchor date (Gutenberg first, French Revolution last) to eliminate options quickly.

5. 'Most powerful weapon of the Spanish conqueror was not a conventional military weapon at all.' Justify the statement by giving two reasons. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Spanish conquerors carried germs like smallpox, which spread deep into the continent even before any European reached there.
2. The original inhabitants of America had no immunity against these European diseases, so whole communities were wiped out, making conquest easy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Key words are smallpox germs and no immunity among Americans.
b) This is often described as biological warfare of the mid-sixteenth century.

6. (A) 'The female figures become an allegory of the nation during the 19th century in Europe.' Elaborate on the statement with examples. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Artists personified the nation as a female figure. This figure was not any real woman but an abstract idea that gave the nation a concrete form.
2. In France, the female allegory was named Marianne. Her red cap, tricolour and cockade were drawn from the symbols of Liberty and the Republic.
3. Germania became the allegory of the German nation. She wears a crown of oak leaves, as the oak stands for heroism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always give both examples, Marianne (France) and Germania (Germany), with their symbols.
b) Explain the word allegory as an abstract idea shown through a person or thing.

OR

(B) Assess the role of the Greek War of Independence in shaping nationalist consciousness among educated Europeans in the nineteenth century. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. Revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked a Greek struggle for independence in 1821.
2. The Greeks got support from Greeks in exile and from West Europeans who admired ancient Greek culture. Poets and artists praised Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion.
3. The English poet Lord Byron raised funds and went to fight in the war, dying of fever in 1824. The Treaty of Constantinople (1832) recognised Greece as independent.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the key dates 1821 (struggle begins) and 1832 (Treaty of Constantinople).
b) Stress how poets and artists turned the war into a cause for all educated Europeans.

7. (A) Evaluate the economic consequences of the Non-Cooperation Movement for colonial rule in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The economic effects were dramatic: foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed and foreign cloth was burnt in huge bonfires.
2. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, and its value dropped from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore.
3. In many places, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
4. As the boycott spread, people discarded imported clothes and wore only Indian ones.
5. Production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up, and making and wearing khadi became very popular.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the figures Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore (1921-1922), as examiners look for them.
b) Link each point to the loss suffered by British trade and the gain for Indian industry.

OR

(B) Analyse how Indian merchants and industrialists associated themselves with the Civil Disobedience Movement, highlighting the forms of support they extended and the reasons for their participation. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists made huge profits and became powerful. To expand business, they opposed colonial policies that restricted business activities.
2. They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods and a rupee-sterling exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
3. They formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress (1920) and FICCI (1927). Led by Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla, they attacked colonial control over the economy and supported the movement when it was launched.
4. They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods. They saw swaraj as a time when trade and industry would flourish without colonial restrictions.
5. After the failure of the Round Table Conference, their enthusiasm declined. They feared militant activities, long disruption of business and the growing influence of socialism among young Congress members.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover both parts of the question: forms of support (funds, boycott) and reasons (profits, protection, swaraj).
b) Remember FICCI (1927) and the leaders Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla.
c) Stay within 120 words by writing one idea per point.

8. Read the following text and answer the questions that follow:

Print comes to India
The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century. Jesuit priests learnt Konkani and printed several tracts. By 1674, about 50 books had been printed in the Konkani and Kanara languages. Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in 1579 at Cochin, and in 1713 the first Malayalam book was printed by them. By 1710, Dutch Protestant missionaries had printed 32 Tamil texts, many of them translations of older works.
The English language press did not grow in India till quite late. From 1780, James Augustus Hickey edited the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that claimed to be independent of colonial influence. This marked the beginning of English newspaper printing in India.
Source-India and the Contemporary World - II, NCERT. Class 10,Chapter 5

8.1. Identify the newspaper that marked the beginning of English newspaper printing in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The Bengal Gazette marked the beginning of English newspaper printing in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The answer is stated directly in the source, so read it carefully.
b) Remember that James Augustus Hickey edited it from 1780.

8.2 Explain how James Augustus Hickey demonstrated independence through his newspaper. [1 Mark]

Answer: Hickey published a private weekly newspaper that claimed to be open to all and not influenced by colonial authorities.

Teacher's Note:
a) The key phrase is "independent of colonial influence".
b) Mention that it was a private weekly, not a government paper.

8.3. Evaluate how the early printing activities contributed to the spread of knowledge in India before English newspapers became popular. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Early printing produced books and religious texts in regional languages such as Konkani, Tamil and Malayalam.
2. This made written material available to local people and encouraged the circulation of ideas long before English newspapers became popular.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use examples from the source: Konkani tracts in Goa and the first Tamil and Malayalam books.
b) The key idea is access to reading in local languages.

9. MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (Map is given at page no 12)
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map.
A) The place where a violent massacre took place on 13th April, 1919.
B) The place where Gandhi ji led indigo peasants against the oppressive plantation system [2 Marks]

[Figure: Outline political map of India with two places marked A and B, each with a line for writing the name.]

Answer:
A: Amritsar (Jallianwala Bagh massacre, 13th April 1919).
B: Champaran (Gandhiji's satyagraha with indigo peasants).

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the names neatly on the lines given near the marked points.
b) Amritsar is in Punjab and Champaran is in Bihar.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 9)

A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.
B) The place where Gandhiji organised 'Satyagraha' in favour of cotton mill workers [2 Marks]

Answer:
A: Dandi.
B: Ahmedabad.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Civil Disobedience Movement began when Gandhiji broke the salt law at Dandi.
b) The Ahmedabad satyagraha of 1918 was for cotton mill workers.

SECTION B

GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. A mineral deposit, that is known but cannot be used currently due to lack of technology, fits into which category of resources? [1 Mark]
A. Renewable resource
B. Developed resource
C. Potential resource
D. Reserve

Answer: C. Potential resource

Teacher's Note:
a) Potential resources are found in a region but have not yet been utilised.
b) In NCERT, a resource that cannot be used for lack of technology is called 'stock'; since stock is not an option, potential resource is the best choice.
c) Reserves can be used with existing technology, so option D does not fit.

11. Which of the following options is the correct match?
Column I | Column II
1. Equitable distribution of resources | X. Ensures long-term survival of all life forms
2. Sustainable existence | Y. Prevents concentration of resources in a few hands
3. Resource planning | Z. Balances current development with conservation for the future
Choose the correct option- [1 Mark]
A. 1-Y, 2-X, 3-Z
B. 1-Z, 2-Y, 3-X
C. 1-X, 2-Z, 3-Y
D. 1-Y, 2-Z, 3-X

Answer: A. 1-Y, 2-X, 3-Z

Teacher's Note:
a) Equitable distribution means resources are not held by a few people.
b) Sustainable existence is about the survival of all life forms; planning balances present use with the future.

12. Which of the following statements about placer deposits are correct?
(a) They are commonly found in valley floors and at the base of hills
(b) They mainly contain minerals that easily dissolve in water
(c) Gold and platinum are typical minerals found in such deposits
(d) They are formed due to deposition by running water
Choose the correct option as answer- [1 Mark]
A. (a), (b), (d)
B. (b), (c), (d)
C. (a), (b), (c)
D. (a), (c), (d)

Answer: D. (a), (c), (d)

Teacher's Note:
a) Placer deposits contain minerals that are not corroded by water, so statement (b) is wrong.
b) Gold, silver, tin and platinum are the usual examples found in sands of valley floors.

13. A steel company requires iron ore with the best physical properties for high-quality steel production. Which mining region would be the most suitable choice, based on the nature of iron ore found there? [1 Mark]
A. Maharashtra-Goa belt
B. Odisha-Jharkhand belt
C. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt
D. Ballari-Chitradurga belt

Answer: C. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt

Teacher's Note:
a) The Bailadila hills in this belt have very high grade hematite with the best physical properties for steel making.
b) Link each iron ore belt with its key mines and ports for quick recall.

14. Despite India's strong capacity in spinning, the weaving sector continues to produce relatively lower-quality fabric. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason? [1 Mark]
A. Overdependence on imported cotton yarn
B. Limited use of high-quality yarn due to decentralised weaving structure
C. Excessive mechanisation of weaving mills
D. Decline in traditional weaving skills

Answer: B. Limited use of high-quality yarn due to decentralised weaving structure

Teacher's Note:
a) Spinning is centralised, but weaving is highly decentralised in handloom and powerloom units.
b) Because of this, much of the good quality yarn produced is not used by our weavers.

15. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R). Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below as the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Bengaluru has developed as one of the leading centres of the Information Technology and electronics industry in India.
Reason (R): The city is located close to major ports, which has been the primary factor encouraging the growth of electronics and IT industries there. [1 Mark]
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

Answer: C. A is true, but R is false

Teacher's Note:
a) Bengaluru is known as the electronic capital of India, so the Assertion is true.
b) Bengaluru is an inland city, so nearness to ports is not the reason for its growth.

16. A drought-prone district wants to adopt a sustainable water conservation method using traditional knowledge. Suggest two suitable rainwater harvesting practices that could be implemented. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rooftop rainwater harvesting: Rainwater from rooftops is stored in tanks for domestic use. This reduces dependence on surface and groundwater during dry periods.
2. Johads or khadins: These structures store rainwater and let it seep into the ground. This recharges groundwater and supports irrigation in water-scarce areas.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name the method and add one line on how it helps.
b) Keep the answer within 40 words.

17. (A) A farmer plans to shift from food crops to plantation crops and is to choose between tea and coffee. Highlight the difference in the conditions associated with their growth. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Tea suits areas with high rainfall spread throughout the year, while coffee prefers seasonal rainfall.
2. Tea needs a frost-free climate, which makes it ideal for tropical and sub-tropical regions.
3. Coffee (Arabica) suits regions with moderate temperatures and well-drained slopes, such as the Western Ghats.
4. Tea plantations need a large supply of labour, while coffee needs comparatively less labour.
5. Coffee cultivation is limited to fewer areas, whereas tea can be grown in several regions of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write each point as a comparison of tea and coffee, since the question asks for differences.
b) Mention the Western Ghats (Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu) as the main coffee region.

OR

(B) Farmers in a region experiencing moderate rainfall, cool winters, and assured irrigation plan to move from mixed cropping to the cultivation of a single cereal crop. Should they opt for rice or wheat? Support your answer with appropriate reasons based on crop requirements. [5 Marks]

Answer: They should opt for wheat.
1. Wheat grows well in cool temperatures during the growing season.
2. The region's moderate rainfall matches wheat's requirement of 50-75 cm.
3. Wheat needs bright sunshine at the time of ripening, which is common in the winter months.
4. Assured irrigation supports wheat cultivation in areas with limited rainfall.
5. Wheat is traditionally grown in the north and north-western regions, which have similar conditions.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the choice (wheat) clearly first, then give the reasons.
b) Rice needs high temperature and rainfall above 100 cm, so it does not suit these conditions.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

Role of Communities in Forest Conservation
In many parts of India, especially in tribal and mountainous regions, local communities depend on forests for fuel, fodder, and livelihood. Over time, people realised that uncontrolled exploitation by contractors and commercial interests was destroying forests and threatening their survival. This led to community-led conservation efforts where people actively protected forests through traditional practices and movements. One such movement began in the Himalayan region, where villagers protected trees by hugging them, highlighting the importance of people's participation in conservation.
Source- Contemporary India - II,NCERT, Chapter 2

18.1 State any one objective of community-based forest conservation. [1 Mark]

Answer: To ensure the protection and sustainable use of forest resources by involving local communities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the key words protection, sustainable use and local communities.
b) One clear objective is enough for 1 mark.

18.2 How does people's participation lead to more effective forest resource management? Elaborate with the help of two examples. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Local communities have traditional knowledge of forests, and they develop a sense of responsibility and ownership, which prevents over-exploitation.
2. Examples: Joint Forest Management (JFM), where local communities and the government jointly manage forest resources; and the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya, which have shown that diversified crop production without synthetic chemicals is possible and economically viable.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give the reason for effectiveness and then name two examples.
b) The marking scheme also accepts any other relevant example.

18.3 Name the forest conservation movement referred to in the given source. [1 Mark]

Answer: Chipko Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) The clue is villagers hugging trees in the Himalayan region.
b) Spell Chipko correctly.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION

19. On the outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols
I (a) One of the largest water resource projects of India, built over the Narmada River in Gujarat. [1 Mark]

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer: Sardar Sarovar Dam (on the Narmada River in Gujarat).

Teacher's Note:
a) Mark the dam with a clear symbol on the Narmada in Gujarat and write its name.
b) Do not confuse it with dams on other rivers of Gujarat.

OR

(b) The dam in the Sutluj-Beas river basin being used both for hydel power production and irrigation. [1 Mark]

Answer: Bhakra Nangal Dam.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bhakra Nangal is on the Satluj river, near the Himachal Pradesh-Punjab border.
b) Attempt only one of (a) and (b).

II Any two of the following:
i. An Iron and steel plant in Tamil Nadu
ii. A cotton textile industry in the capital city of Maharashtra
iii. Meenambakkam international airport [2 Marks]

[Figure: Outline political map of India (same map as in part I)]

Answer:
i. Salem (Iron and steel plant in Tamil Nadu).
ii. Mumbai (cotton textile industry in the capital city of Maharashtra).
iii. Chennai (Meenambakkam international airport).

Teacher's Note:
a) Only two are required; locate and label them with suitable symbols.
b) Mumbai is on the west coast and Chennai on the east coast, so place them on the correct coastline.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 19)

Answer any three of the following questions:
i. Name one of the largest water resource projects of India, built over the Narmada River in Gujarat.
ii. Specify the name of an Iron and Steel plant in Tamil Nadu.
iii. State the location of the cotton textile industry in the capital city of Maharashtra.
iv. Where is the Meenambakkam international airport located? [3 Marks]

Answer:
i. Sardar Sarovar Dam.
ii. Salem.
iii. Mumbai.
iv. Chennai.

Teacher's Note:
a) Only naming is required; attempt any three.
b) These answers are the same as the locations in the main map question.

SECTION C

POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R). Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below as the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power.
Reason (R): It ensures that power does not remain in one hand.
Choose the correct option- [1 Mark]
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Competition among parties and influence of pressure groups keep power from staying in one hand.
b) Check whether R explains why A happens before choosing option A.

21. From a prudential viewpoint, which of the following arguments best supports the idea of power sharing? [1 Mark]
A. t is morally correct
B. It upholds democratic ideals
C. It reduces the chances of social unrest
D. It guarantees equal economic growth for all sections.

Answer: C. It reduces the chances of social unrest

Teacher's Note:
a) Prudential reasons focus on good outcomes, such as reducing conflict between social groups.
b) Options A and B are moral reasons, which are a different category.

22. A political party conducts regular elections, yet the same leaders continue to hold power for decades and key decisions are made by a small group. This situation best reflects:
Choose the correct option- [1 Mark]
A. A federal party structure
B. Lack of internal democracy
C. Dynastic succession
D. Strong ideological unity

Answer: B. Lack of internal democracy

Teacher's Note:
a) Concentration of power in one or a few top leaders is a key challenge to political parties.
b) Dynastic succession needs power passing within a family, which the question does not mention.

23. Which of the following options best signifies the cartoon given below-? [1 Mark]
A. Most of the resources are utilised by the poor countries.
B. Most of the resources are utilised by the developing countries.
C. Most of the resources are utilised by the developed countries
D. Most of the resources are utilised by the land owners.

[Figure: Cartoon of a long dining table. At one end sits a large man in patched clothes labelled '50%', with only a thin slice on his plate. At the other end sits a small, well-dressed man labelled '2%', with a huge pie labelled 'WORLD'S WEALTH' in front of him. Source-NCERT-Democratic Politics II.]

Answer: C. Most of the resources are utilised by the developed countries

Teacher's Note:
a) The cartoon shows a small share of people enjoying most of the world's wealth.
b) Read the labels in a cartoon (50%, 2%, WORLD'S WEALTH) before choosing an option.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 23)

Which of the following has been successfully eliminated by democracies? [1 Mark]
A. Economic inequalities among people.
B. The idea of political inequality
C. Conflicts among people.
D. Differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated.

Answer: B. The idea of political inequality

Teacher's Note:
a) Democracies give every citizen equal political rights, such as one person one vote.
b) Economic inequalities and conflicts still exist in democracies.

24. How the powers were shared between the central and state government in Belgium to avoid the division of the country? Explain. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.
2. Many powers of the central government were given to the state governments of the two regions. The state governments are not subordinate to the central government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Brussels having a separate government with equal representation of both communities is also accepted.
b) Keep the answer within 40 words.

25. Why is a democratic system of government regarded as the best form of governance in terms of involving the maximum number of citizens as stakeholders in political power? Explain with suitable arguments. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. People as the source of power: In a democracy, people are the ultimate source of political power and can govern themselves through institutions of self-government.
2. Active participation and representation: Citizens take part in political processes, are represented in government and share in decision-making.

Teacher's Note:
a) Accountability and stability, through public debate and a legitimate government, is another accepted point.
b) Give a short heading for each argument to make it clear.

26. The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give an impression that elections are all about caste and nothing else. However, that is far from true. Analyze this statement by giving three valid arguments. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. No parliamentary constituency has a clear majority of one single caste. So every candidate and party must win the confidence of more than one caste and community.
2. No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or community. A 'vote bank' only means that a large proportion of that caste votes for a party.
3. The ruling party and sitting MPs or MLAs frequently lose elections. This could not happen if all castes were frozen in their political preferences.

Teacher's Note:
a) Another accepted point: many parties may put up candidates from the same caste, so voters of that caste have more than one choice.
b) Keep within 60 words.

27. (A) Explain any five provisions of the constitutional amendments of 1992 which strengthened the third tier of democracy in India? [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is now constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
2. Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.
3. At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
4. An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each State to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
5. State governments must share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. The nature of sharing varies from State to State.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember the five key words: elections, reservation, women, State Election Commission, sharing of powers and revenue.
b) Write "at least one-third" for women, not "one-third" alone.

OR

(B) 'The Constitution declared India as a Union of States. Although it did not use the word federation, the Indian Union is based on the principles of federalism.' What makes India a federal country? [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Division of powers: The Constitution divides powers between the Union and State Governments through the Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Each level works independently within its jurisdiction.
2. Written and supreme Constitution: All governments must work within the limits of the written Constitution, which is the supreme authority, not Parliament.
3. Rigidity of the Constitution: The division of powers cannot be changed easily. Amendments affecting the federal structure need approval of both Parliament and State Legislatures.
4. Independent judiciary: The Supreme Court settles disputes between the Centre and the States and protects the Constitution.
5. Dual government system: There is a Central Government for the whole country and State Governments for their states.

Teacher's Note:
a) Financial autonomy of the States (their own sources of revenue) is another accepted point.
b) Name the three lists clearly under division of powers.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

Need for political parties
Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who may not know anything about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would know something about our political parties. At the same time, this visibility does not mean popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our political life. Parties have become identified with social and political divisions. Therefore, it is natural to ask if we need political parties at all? About a hundred years ago, there were few countries in the world that had any political party. Now there are few that do not have parties.
Source- NCERT. Democratic Politics-II. Class X

28.1 Modern democracies cannot exist without political parties. Analyse the given statement by giving one reason to support your answer. [1 Mark]

Answer: Without parties, every candidate in the elections would be independent, so no one would be able to promise the people any major policy changes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Another accepted reason: a government may be formed, but its utility will remain uncertain, as representatives will answer only to their own locality.
b) One reason is enough for 1 mark.

28.2 Highlight any two functions of a political party. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Contesting elections: Parties select candidates and compete in elections, giving voters different choices.
2. Making laws: Parties play a decisive role in debating and passing laws in the legislature.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other accepted functions: forming policies, forming and running governments, playing opposition, shaping public opinion and giving access to government.
b) Give a short heading and one line of explanation for each function.

28.3 Why has India opted for a Multi-Party System? Give any one reason to support your answer. [1 Mark]

Answer: India has vast social and geographical diversity of religions, cultures, languages and regions, which cannot be properly represented by just one or two parties.

Teacher's Note:
a) The key word is diversity.
b) A multi-party system gives a voice to many interests and prevents concentration of power in one group.

SECTION D

ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Why do citizens of a country often hold different opinions about the goals of national development? [1 Mark]
A. People living in different conditions may prioritise different needs and goals.
B. Many citizens fail to understand how development plans are made.
C. National development follows only one universally accepted definition.
D. Everyone is expected to agree with a single idea of development.

Answer: A. People living in different conditions may prioritise different needs and goals.

Teacher's Note:
a) Different persons can have different as well as conflicting notions of development.
b) Life situations decide what a person sees as development.

30. Recognise and choose the correct entries to fill in the blanks in the table that show economic activities, examples, and interdependence.
Column A (Economic Activity) | Column B (Example) | Column C (Inter -dependence on Other Economic Activities)
Primary | 1 _____________ | Provides inputs for secondary activities
Secondary | Manufacturing of garments | 2 _________________
Tertiary | Banking, transport, communication | Supports both primary and secondary sectors
Choose the correct option- [1 Mark]
A. 1: Manufacturing of furniture, 2: Supports tertiary sector
B. 1: IT services, 2: Provides raw materials to secondary sector
C. 1: Farming/mining, 2: Relies on raw materials from primary sector
D. 1: Banking/transport, 2: Relies on outputs from tertiary sector

Answer: C. 1: Farming/mining, 2: Relies on raw materials from primary sector

Teacher's Note:
a) Farming and mining use natural resources directly, so they are primary activities.
b) Garment making needs cotton from the primary sector, which shows interdependence.

31. A country's GDP is Rs. 900 crores. The primary sector contributes Rs. 300 crores, and the tertiary sector contributes Rs. 400 crores. What is the contribution of the secondary sector, and which sector contributes the most to GDP?
Choose the correct option- [1 Mark]
A. Rs. 200 crore, tertiary sector
B. Rs. 200 crore, primary sector
C. Rs. 300 crore, tertiary sector
D. Rs. 200 crore, secondary sector

Answer: A. Rs. 200 crore, tertiary sector

Teacher's Note:
a) Secondary sector = 900 - 300 - 400 = Rs. 200 crore.
b) The tertiary sector (Rs. 400 crore) has the largest share.

32. Why is money described as a medium of exchange? [1 Mark]
A. It is used to compare the value of different goods.
B. People accept it in return for goods and services, making trade easier.
C. Money helps individuals save their wealth safely for the future.
D. It enables record-keeping of every transaction made in the economy.

Answer: B. People accept it in return for goods and services, making trade easier.

Teacher's Note:
a) Money acts as an intermediate in exchange and removes the need for double coincidence of wants.
b) Options A and C describe other functions of money, not medium of exchange.

33. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the terms of credit? [1 Mark]
A. Interest rate
B. Mode of repayment
C. Collateral
D. Inflation rate

Answer: D. Inflation rate

Teacher's Note:
a) Terms of credit include interest rate, collateral, documentation and mode of repayment.
b) Note the word NOT in the question.

34. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R). Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below as the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Multi-National Companies help in integrating production and markets across countries.
Reason (R): They set up production units in one country and export goods and components to other countries.
Choose the correct option- [1 Mark]
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Teacher's Note:
a) By spreading production across countries, MNCs link production and markets of different countries.
b) R explains how MNCs bring about the integration stated in A.

35. Ravi noticed that in many villages of India, more people are working on farms than actually needed, and yet many of them do not get proper wages or regular work. What could be the reason behind such a situation? Suggest any two ways to tackle this problem effectively. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. This situation is called disguised unemployment. It happens because of excess labour in agriculture and lack of alternative employment opportunities.
2. Diversification of activities: Introduce other rural jobs such as small-scale industries, dairy and poultry farming.
3. Skill development and education: Train people for non-agricultural jobs in towns or industries to reduce surplus labour on farms.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name the concept (disguised unemployment) to earn the first mark.
b) Land reforms and consolidation of small plots is another accepted solution.

36. Explain how Self-Help Groups (SHGs) help banks to minimize risk when providing loans to poor women, who do not have any collateral. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. SHG members are collectively responsible for repayment, so banks are assured of repayment.
2. The group monitors individual members and follows up cases of non-repayment.
3. Regular savings and organised meetings show discipline and reliability, which makes banks confident to lend.

Teacher's Note:
a) The key idea is that the group acts in place of collateral.
b) Use words like collective responsibility and group monitoring.

37. Improvements in technology and liberalization together have accelerated globalization. Evaluate. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Technology in transport, telecommunication and the Internet allows fast movement of goods, services and information across countries.
2. Liberalisation reduces trade barriers and allows foreign investment, which makes it easier for businesses to operate globally.
3. Together, they increase interconnection between countries, integrate markets and expand opportunities for trade and investment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give one point on technology, one on liberalisation and one on their combined effect.
b) Keep the answer within 60 words.

38. (A) While studying the table given below for their Social Science project, two classmates A and B, notice significant differences in the Literacy Rate and Infant Mortality Rate while comparing the development indicators of three states. Analyse how the development levels of these states differ and suggest the inferences A and B can draw. What areas should each state focus on to improve their overall development?
Table: Comparison of Development Indicators
State | Infant Mortality Rate (per 1,000 live births) (2020) | Literacy Rate (%) (2017-18) | Net Attendance Ratio (Secondary Stage) (%) 2017-18
H | 28 | 82 | 73
K | 6 | 94 | 94
B | 27 | 62 | 69
Adapted from-Sources: Economic Survey 2023-24, National Sample Survey Organisation (Report No. 585), National Statistical Office, Government of India; National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) 2019-21 IIPS, Mumbai. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Difference in development levels:
1. Kerala (K) performs best on both indicators, with the highest literacy and the lowest infant mortality. Bihar (B) performs the weakest, and Haryana (H) lies in between, with moderate literacy but a high infant mortality rate.
Inferences:
2. Higher literacy seems linked with better health. Kerala's high literacy (94%) goes with a very low IMR (6), while Bihar's low literacy (62%) goes with a high IMR (27).
3. The wide gaps show that development in India is uneven. States progress at different speeds depending on their policies, governance and use of resources.
Suggestions:
4. Haryana should improve maternal and child healthcare to reduce its high infant mortality rate, while continuing to strengthen education.
5. Bihar should expand literacy and improve basic health facilities, while Kerala should maintain and further strengthen its education and healthcare systems.

Teacher's Note:
a) Marks are split 1 + 2 + 2: one comparison, two inferences and two suggestions.
b) The marking scheme reads H, K and B as Haryana, Kerala and Bihar.
c) Quote the figures from the table to support each inference.

OR

(B) Study the table given above and answer:
Which of the three states is likely to have a better human development standard than the others? Justify explaining any two reasons for your answer. Why is it important to pay attention to indicators like Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), Literacy Rate, and Net Attendance Ratio to bring about an overall development of any state. [5 Marks]

Answer:
State K (Kerala) is likely to have a better human development standard than H (Haryana) and B (Bihar).
Reasons:
1. Low Infant Mortality Rate (6): The fewest children die before the age of one, which shows strong healthcare and better life expectancy.
2. High Literacy Rate (94%) and Net Attendance Ratio (94%): Most people can read and write and most children attend secondary school, which reflects good education and social development.
Importance of these indicators:
3. IMR: Reducing infant deaths ensures healthier children and a stronger, more productive population.
4. Literacy Rate and Net Attendance Ratio: Education empowers people and improves their awareness of health, employment and civic duties, leading to overall development of the state.

Teacher's Note:
a) Marks are split 1 + 2 + 2: naming the state, two reasons and two points on importance.
b) Use the table values (IMR 6, literacy 94%, attendance 94%) in your reasons.