NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set H

Refer to NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set H below. Students of NEET All Subjects can do the below online test and refer to the full list of free NEET All Subjects Mock Online Test provided below. These online Mock tests for All Subjects in NEET have been designed based on the pattern of questions expected to come in the upcoming NEET examinations and the latest syllabus issued by NEET, NCERT and KVS and to help students strengthen their understanding of key topics. We have also provided MCQ Questions for NEET All Subjects with answers for all topics.

Online Mock Test for NEET All Subjects All Chapters

In the online practice Mock test for All Subjects All Chapters you can see the list of questions below with options out of which you have to select one correct answer and after completing the test you can check your answers and score. This mock test will help NEET students to check understanding of all topics in All Chapters. This includes multiple choice questions from NEET All Subjects book to test your knowledge and boost confidence.

All Chapters All Subjects NEET Mock Test

1. Find output Y for following circuit NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-3

2.

3.

4. In the following, which one of the diodes is reverse biased?

5. If no external voltage is applied across P-N junction, there would be

6. 20% of a radio active element disintegrates in 1 hr. The percentage of the radio active element disintegrated in 2hrs will be

7.

8. NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H

9. A sample contains 16 g of a radioactive material, the half-life of which is 2 days. After 32 days the amount of radioactive material left in the sample is

10. The longest wavelength that a single ionized helium atom in its ground state will absorb is

11.

12. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons from a neutral helium atom. The energy (in eV) required to remove both the electrons from a neutral helium atom is

13. An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired a result of photon emission will be : (m is the mass of the atom, R is Rydberg constant and h is Planck’s constant)

14. Two large parallel plates are connected with the terminal of 100 V power supply. These plates have a fine hole at the centre. An electron having energy 200 eV is so directed that it passed through the holes. When it comes out it’s de-Broglie wavelength is NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-2

15. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different wavelengths 248 nm and 310 nm. The maximum speeds of the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths are u1 and u2 , respectively. If the ratio u1 : u2 = 2 : 1 and hc = 1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal is nearly

16.

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18. 5% of the power of 100 W bulb is converted to visible radiation. Average Poynting vector(intensity) of visible radiation at a distance of 10 m from the bulb is

19. An iron choke and an electric bulb are connected in series with AC mains. On introducing a soft iron bar in the coil, the intensity of bulb will

20. A transformer is used to light 140W, 24V lamp from 240V AC mains. The current in the main cable is 0.7 A. The efficiency of the transformer is

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24. An electric motor runs on a DC source of emf 200 V and draws a current of 10 A. If the efficiency is 40%, then the resistance of the armature is

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26. Two loops carrying current in opposite sense placed parallel to each other are moved closer to each other. Then the current NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-4  

27. A bar magnet oscillates in a region of uniform magnetic field with time period T. Now, a piece of wood identical in all respects in terms of mass and length is joined with bar magnet as shown. The new time period of oscillation is

28. In a dip circle, the measurement of an apparant dip is 60º at a place where true dip is 30º. If the dip circle is rotated through 90º then the reading of dip circle is

29. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is Ca (figure a). A dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted as shown in figure (b) and figure (c). If Cb and Cc denote the capacitance in figure (b) and (c), then

30. Figure shows two identical parallel plate capacitors connected to a battery through a switch S. Initially, the switch is closed so that the capacitor are completely charged. The switch is now opened and the free spaced between the plates of the capacitors is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 3. The ratio of the initial total energy stored in the capacitors to the final total energy stored is

31.

32.

33. P-T curve of the following process will be

34. A cyclic process ABCDA is shown in figure. Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Net work done by gas is negative
(2) Net work done by gas is positive
(3) Above process represents a cycle usable for engine
(4) Above process represents a cycle usable for a refrigerator

35.

36. A block of metal is heated to a temperature much higher than the room temperature and allowed to cool in a room free from air currents. Which of the following curves correctly represents the cooling? (T : Temperature of block)

37. Five rods of same dimensions are arranged as shown in the figure. They have thermal conductivities k1 , k2 , k3 , k4 and k5 . When points A and C are maintained at different temperature, no heat flows through the central rod if

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44. Choose the wrong statements regarding universal rules of nomenclature

45. An atomic orbital is monocentric while a molecular orbital is polycentric. It is because
I. an electron is an atomic orbital is influenced by one mucleus.
II. an electri=on in a molecular orbital is influenced by two or more nuclei.
Choose the correct option

46. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give urotropine. The formula of urotropine is

47. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated with X and phenol gives benzene on being heated with Y. Therefore, X and Y are respectively

48. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true

49. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are

50. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2.When 0.1 mole of XY2 weighs 10g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9g, the atomic weights of X ans Y are

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54.

55. Among the following the one that gives positive iodoform upon reaction with I2 and NaOH is

56. Among the given compounds, the correct dehydration order is

57.

58. In ccp, ratio of no. of atoms to no. of tetrahedral void is

59. A compound XY crystallizes in BCC lattice with unit cell edge length of 480 pm. If the radius of Y is 225 pm, then the radius of X+ is

60. A solid is formed and it has three types of atoms X, Y, Z, X forms a FCC lattice with Y atoms occupying all the tetrahedral voids and Z atoms occupying half the octrahedral voids. The formula of the solid is

61.

62. Which of the following pairs are epimers

63. Match List – I [polymers] with List – II [monomers] and choose the correct answer from the codes given below the list-

64.

65.

66. Among ethanol (I), Acetic acid (II), Phenol (III) and Benzoic acid (IV), the correct order of increasing acid strength is

67. Match the following

68.

69. A Sub stance C4H10O on oxidation a yields compound C4H8O . which gives an oxime and a positive iodoform test. The original substance on treatment with conc. H2SO4 gives C4H8 . The compound is

70. Which of the products formed when acetone is reacted with barium hydroxide solution?

71.

72. In the fololwing compounds, the decreasing order of acidity is

73. Hyperconjugation is possible in which of the following species?

74. The least stable carbocation is

75. The most stable carbanion is:

76. Which of the following contains nuleophiles only?

77. The structure of phenacetin is

78.

79. Which of the following is not correctly matched

80. Which of the following structures represents terylene

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84.

85. Assuming complete precipitation of AgCl, calculate the sum of the molar concentration of all the ions if 2 lit of 2M Ag2SO4 is mixed with 4 lit of 1 M NaCl solution is

86.

87. Ratio of masses of H2SO4 and Al2 (SO4)3 is grams each containing 32 grams of S is

88. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are

89. Regeneration of a plant cell to give rise to new plant is called

90. Why thyroxine is a hormone not an enzyme?

91. Which of the following groups of endocrine glands are involved in carbohydrate metabolism?

92. According to the accepted concept of hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organs

93. Adrenaline directly affect

94. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of milk from female?

95. Which of the following statement is correct for Iter?

96. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option
I. The medulla is connected to the spinal cord
II. Medulla contains controlling centres for respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretion
III. Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space for more neurons

97. Cerebellum portion of brain is

98. Patients suffering from cholera are given a saline drip because

99. I. The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones
II. The neural system provides an oragnised network of point to point connection for a quick coordination
III. The neural organization is very complex in lower invertebrates
IV. The human neural system includes CNS and PNSSelect the correct statements

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101. Which of the following option shows correct order of some stages of muscle contraction from the beginning to the end of the process?

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103. Each actin (thin filament) of is made up of

104. If one liter of water is introduced in human blood, then

105. Which one of the following groups of structures/organs have similar function?

106. Which of the following structures are situated in the cortical region of the kidney?
I. Malpighian corpuscle II. PCT (Proximal Convoluted Tubules) III. DCT (Distal Convoluted Tubules) IV. Loop of Henle V. Collecting duct

107. Which one of the following blood cells is involved in antibody production

108. One of the common symptoms observed in people infected with Dengue fever is

109.

110. In the given figure the durations of the events of the cardiac cycle are given. Identify these events and select the correct option

111. Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume I. Tidal volume II. Residual volume III. Expiratory reserve volume IV. Vital capacity

112.

113. The respiratory membranes facilitates the exchange of respiratory gases through diffusion. Oxygen enters the deoxygenated blood through diffusion because

114. Read the statement A and B.
A. In human, small intestine is the longest protein of the alimentary canal.
B. Absorption of digested food requires a very large surface area. Identify the correct choice on the two statements.

115. The given below diagram represents a duct system of pancreas, liver and gall bladder. Label the diagram from A to C NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-18  

116. Elephant tusks are

117. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?

118. Which of the following metalloprotein is found in the blood of earthworm?

119. Peyer’s patches produce

120. Which among the following is not a characteristic of yellow fibres of connective tissue?

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122. Study the given figure of male reproductive system of cockroach. In which of the following part NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-15

123. Consider the following statement about frog’s digestive system
I. Food is captured by the bilobed tongue
II. Partially digested food is called chyme. It is passed from the stomach to the first part of intestine
III. Bile digests carbohydrates and proteins
IV. Inner wall of the intestine contains ciliaWhich of the above given statement are incorrect?

124. Study the given figures and identify the kind of phyllotaxy NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-10  

125. The given figure shows some types of inflorescences. Select the option that correctly identifies them. NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-5  

126.

127. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below

128. Diploblastic animals belong to the phylum

129. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are

130. Absence of circulatory system in Hydra is compensated by

131. Which of the following characters are present in class-Crustacea?

132. Animals are classified on the basis of which of the following features?
I. Coelomic cavity II. Level of organization III. Notochord IV. Skeletal structure

133. Metabolism can be best defined as

134.

135. Davisson – Germer experiment confirms the

136. Following figures show the different steps involved in production of genetically engineered insulin. Identify the enzymes involved in steps A, Band C and select the correct statement regarding this NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-27  

137. The given flow chart depicts the steps to transfer a desirable gene of interest into a plant. Identify the missing steps (A, B and C) with regard to following statements and select the correct option. NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-26   (i) Joining of desirable gene to a suitable cloning vector using ligases to create a recombinant DNA molecule.
(ii) Selection of transformed cells.
(iii) Transferring the recombinant DNA molecules to the target cells.  

138. Which of the following sequences is recognized by restriction enzyme Bam HI?

139. The gene rop present in pBR322 cloning vector, codes for

140. If you want to recover many copies of the target DNA. You will choose a vector

141. Quinine is obtained from

142. Which of the following is an example is an example of carcinoma?

143. Mast cell is a cell of …A… of vertebrate animals. Mast cells mediate inflammatory responses such as …B……. . Mast cells store a number of different chemical mediators including …C… and …D. Here A to D refers to

144. Which of the following health disorder includes symptoms of fever, chills, cough, headache, gray or bluish lips and finger’s nails?

145. Regarding pathogens consider the following statements
I. A pathogen or an infectious agent is a microorganism, such as a virus, bacterium, fungus that causes disease in its host
II. These pathogens multiply in our body and interfere with the normal vital activities, resulting in morphological and functional damage
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?

146. All stages of the Plasmodium get digested in stomach of female Anopheles except

147. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because

148. Read the following statements.
(i) One codon codes for only one amino acid.
(ii) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon.
(iii) The sequence of triplet nitrogenous bases in DNA or mRNA corresponds to the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain.
Give suitable terms for the characteristics of ‘genetic code’ as per the above statements.

149. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below

150.

151. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of mRNA. NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-H-21  

152. Which of the following figures correctly represents the replication fork formed during DNA replication?

153. The process of transformation is not affected by which of the following enzymes?
A. DNase B. RNase C. Peptidase D. Lipase

154. A boy has a normal brother and a colourblind sister. What is true about his parents?

155. Identify the wrong statement

156. In a given plant, red colour ( R ) of fruit is dominant over white fruit ( r); and tallness ( T ) is dominant over dwarfness ( t ). If a plant with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant of genotype rrtt, what will be the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the next generation?

157. The possibility of erythroblastosis foetalis occurring during the second pregnancy is when

158. Study the pedigree chart given below.What does it show?

159.

160. A women with blood-O has a child with blood group-O. She claims that a man with blood group- A is the father of her child. What would be the genotype of the father, if her claim is right?

161. Secondary infertility is

162. Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are:

163. What is false for GIFT?

164. Oral contraceptives inhibits …A… and implantation as the well as quality of cervical …B…. to prevent the entry of sperms.Choose the correct option for A and B to complete the given statement of NCERT textbook

165.

166. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs

167. Skin epidermis, tooth, enamel, lens and corner of outer ear, brain, spinal cord, skeletal muscles of human head are derived from

168. Read the graph and correlate the uterine events that takes place according to the hormonal levels on A. 6-15 days B. 16-25 days C. 26-28 days (if the ovum is not fertilized)

169. During ovulation all of the following occur except

170. The tertiary follicle changes into mature follicle called …A… The secondary oocyte form a new membrane called …B… surrounding it. The Graafian follicle reptures to release the secondary oocyte ovum from the ovary by the process called …C…A, B and C in the above passage refers to

171. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below

172. In a fully developed male gametophyte the number of nuclei is

173. How many pollen mother cells should undergo meiotic division to produce 64 pollen grains?

174. Flowering plants have developed certain outbreeding devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination. One of these is not an example of such outbreeding device

175. In_(i)_ condition, both male and female flowers are borne on same plant; an example of such plants is _(ii)_ .

176. Refer the given statements.
(i) Outer exine is made up of sporopollenin.
(ii) Inner intine is pecto-cellulosic in nature.
(iii) Generative cell is bigger and contains abundant food reserve.
(iv) Vegetative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the generative cell.
Which of the given statements are not true regarding structure of pollen grain?

177. A dithecous anther consists of _(i)_ microsporangia, _(ii)_ in each lobe.

178. In which pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?

NEET All Subjects Mock online test NEET All Chapters

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Daily practicing the All Chapters mock tests for NEET All Subjects has several benefits as they help to familiarize students with important concepts and effective time management skills. Each mock test for chapter All Chapters given above includes a variety of questions that  have been selected from Question Papers for NEET All Subjects and cover all important topics so that you have full preparation. After completing the NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set H, NEET students can review the answers to identify mistakes and improve further. Access these free NEET online mock tests anytime and take a step closer to achieving excellence in your All Subjects exams.

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a. The NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set H has 15-20 questions for NEET students as per NEET NEET All Subjects Sample Papers pattern.
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g. You can attempt the NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set H as many times to improve your score in NEET NEET All Subjects exams.

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