NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set F

Refer to NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set F below. Students of NEET All Subjects can do the below online test and refer to the full list of free NEET All Subjects Mock Online Test provided below. These online Mock tests for All Subjects in NEET have been designed based on the pattern of questions expected to come in the upcoming NEET examinations and the latest syllabus issued by NEET, NCERT and KVS and to help students strengthen their understanding of key topics. We have also provided MCQ Questions for NEET All Subjects with answers for all topics.

Online Mock Test for NEET All Subjects All Chapters

In the online practice Mock test for All Subjects All Chapters you can see the list of questions below with options out of which you have to select one correct answer and after completing the test you can check your answers and score. This mock test will help NEET students to check understanding of all topics in All Chapters. This includes multiple choice questions from NEET All Subjects book to test your knowledge and boost confidence.

All Chapters All Subjects NEET Mock Test

1. A cylinder is made up of material havings thermal conductivity k1. If it is coated upto thrice of its radius of a material of thermal conductivity k2, then the equivalent thermal conductivity will be

2. During adiabatic process, specific heat of the gas is

3. Choose the incorrect statement

4. The ratio of time period of two electrons moving in 2nd and 4th orbit of H-like atom is

5. Which logic gate is represented by the following combinations?

6. Escape speed of a body from earth depends upon

7.

8. If a convex lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index same as less, then the lens will

9.

10. Two solenoids of equal lengths and almost equal cross-sectional areas are fully inserted into one another (ideal coupling). Find their mutual inductance if their self inductances are L1 and L2

11. A charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field following circular path penetrates a layer of lead and loses one half of its kinetic energy. The radius of circular path changes to

12. Find equivalent resistance of given circuit between A and B NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-F-1  

13. A certain perfect gas is found to obey PV3/2 constant, during adiabatic process. If such a gas at initial temperature T is adiabatically expanded to double of its volume, then its final temperature will be

14. A metallic bar is heated from 0°C to 100°C. The coefficient of linear expansion is 10–4 K–1. What will be the percentage increase in length?

15.

16. Photons of wavelength 662 nm incident normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. If they exert a force of 1 N on the surface, then number of photons incident per second is (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Nm-s)

17. The graph between velocity and displacement for a particle in SHM is

18. The force acting on a body is directly proportional to x-2/3 .Then power delivered by the force will be proportional to (where x is displacement)

19. Direction of angular velocity is

20. Two particles A and B are allowed to slide along two frictionless rods OP and OQ placed along two chords of a vertical circle at the same instant from O. The ratio of velocities of A and B when they reach on the circumference will be (OQ is diameter)

21. Two stones are projected simultaneously from same point and with same initial speed. One is projected in vertical upward direction and second at an angle 60° with horizontal. The ratio of their velocities when both are at a certain height will be

22.

23.

24. The wavelength associated with an electron accelerated from rest through a PD of 1000 V is

25. Bohr’s radius of the H-atom in the ground state is 0.529 Å. What is the Bohr’s radius of H-atom in first excited state?

26. In a Young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are observed to be formed in a certain region of screen when a light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If a light of 200 nm is used, then number of fringes observed in same region is

27. If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined together, then, power of combination

28.

29. The ratio of heat developed in three wires having lengths in the ratio 1 : 5 : 8 and radii 1 : 2 : 3 in parallel combination

30.

31.

32. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing SHM is

33. The excess pressure inside one soap bubble is four times the excess pressure in other. Then, ratio of their surface areas is

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35. A flywheel rolls down on an inclined plane. At any instant of time, ratio of rotational kinetic energy to the total kinetic energy is

36. Above curie temperature a ferromagnetic substance behaves

37. Angle between instantaneous electric field and magnetic field of electromagnetic wave is

38.

39. If momentum of a particle is increased by 3%, then, percentage change in kinetic energy will be

40. The distance covered by a body projected vertically upward during first second of its descent is

41. A projectile has same range for two angles of projections from horizontal. If greatest heights achieved by projectile in two cases are h1 & h2, then

42.

43. A uniform thick rope of length 10 m is resting on a horizontal frictionless surface. It is pulled by a force of 5 N at one end. Then what is the tension in the rope at 2 m from the end where the force is applied?

44.

45.

46. Which of the following is teflon?

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48. Which one is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?

49.

50.

51. The value of ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following configuration is 2.84 B.M. The correct one is

52. Oxidation of oxalic acid by KMnO4 in acidic medium is an example of auto-catalysis. The catalyst is

53. The incorrect order of acidic nature

54. In the preparation of sulphuric acid by contact process, V2O5 is used in which of the following reaction?

55. Calgon has composition

56. t 80ºC, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 250 mm of Hg and that of pure liquid B is 1000 mm of Hg. If a solution of A and B boils at 80ºC and 1 atm pressure, the amount of A in the mixture is (1 atm = 760 mm Hg)

57. The change in oxidation number of bromine if it allowed to react with hot and conc. NaOH

58. The pH of water at 298 K is 7.0. If water is heated to 350 K, then

59. Which of the following is a conjugate base of some acid and also has its conjugate base?

60.

61. A 10 L wooden box is divided into two equal half by a thin partition, one side is filled by a gas at 10 atm and other side is perfect vacuum. If a hole is made in the partition and gas is allowed to expand to other side. Work done will be

62. Find the incorrect match

63. In which of the following all bonds are not identical?

64. An atom with electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2 can be placed in which of the following group of periodic table?

65. A real gas will behave more closely as an ideal gas if the constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ related to van der Waal’s equation are

66. The total number of neutrons in 2 g CH4 is

67. Which compound of nitrogen produces nitrogen gas on heating?

68. The correct statement/s about H2S2O7 is/are

69. The geometries of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPh3)2Cl2 are

70. A paste of compound ‘X’ in water is heated with ethanol. It gives a product which is used as an anaesthetic agent. ‘X’ is

71. Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?

72. Sodium hydroxide solution reacts with phosphorous to form phosphine. The reaction requires

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74. One mole of ethylamine when reacts with nitrous acid produces dinitrogen gas at 0ºC and 1 atmospheric pressure equal to

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76. How many structural isomers of alcohols are possible with molecular formula C4H10O?

77. What amount of bromine will be required to convert 2 g of phenol into 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol?

78. Which of the following compound will not give ppt. with AgNO3(aq)?

79.

80. Benzene reacts with iso-butyl chloride in the presence of anhyd. AlCl3 to give (as a major product

81. A weak acid HX (Ka = 10–5) on reaction with NaOH gives NaX. For 0.1 M aqueous solution of NaX, the % hydrolysis is

82.

83. The rate of a chemical reaction depends upon

84. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction of solute is

85. Which of the following species has triangular planar shape?

86.

87.

88. The reciprocal of viscosity is called

89. For a ‘d’ electron, the orbital angular momentum is

90. If heterozygous dominant (tT) crossed with homozygous dwarf plant, then the percentage of progeny having dwarf character is

91. True fruit is directly derived from

92. Which of the following is incorrect in angiosperm?

93. If root of flowering plant has 24 chromosomes then its gamete has how many chromosomes?

94. What are the various ways through which the reproductive health can be improved?
I. Education
II. Awareness
III. Encouraging myths
IV. Ban on amniocentesis

95. On which day, world population touched 5th billion?

96. The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be about

97. Boviene spongiform encephalopathy disease is equal to

98. Parathormone is responsible for

99. Toxic agents, present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis, lead to development of

100. Which of the following plant yields oil and fibre both?

101. Recently discovered anti-cancer drug is obtained from

102. A sewage treatment process, in which a portion of the decomposer bacteria present in the waste is recycled into the beginning of the process, is called

103. Why CNG is considered as good fuel over diesel/petrol?
I. CNG burns most efficiently without leaving any unburnt remnant behind
II. CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel
III. CNG cannot be siphoned off by thieves and adulterated like petrol or diesel
Which of the statements given above are correct?

104. In which of the following, pyrenoids are present?

105. Heterosporouspteridophytes always produce

106. Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the safest?

107. Which one of the following statements is correct?

108.

109. Teichoic acid is present in

110. Which of the following is a slime mould?

111. ELISA is based on

112. The characteristics of a molecular probe are
I. Very long molecule
II. Double-stranded
III. DNA or RNA
IV. Complementary to a part of desired gene The correct pair is

113. An organisation aiming to regulate biotechnological activities was established by Indian Government named

114. The second meiotic division leads to

115. Give the name of the phases of meiosis, in which
I. the chromosome number is reduced to haploid state
II. the amount of DNA is reduced to haploid state
The correct option is

116. Lipid molecules in plasma membrane are arranged in which manner?

117. The membrane potential of cell favours the

118. Fermentation is

119. Net gain of ATP from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis, is

120. What is the approximate percentage of proteins in the cell contents?

121. Select the false statement
I. Living process is a constant effort to promote falling into equilibrium
II. Energy can enter and leave a cell
III. Matter can enter and leave a cell
IV. Metabolic pathways are interlinked

122. Choose the correct option from given
statement
I. Glomerular filtrationrate is 125 mL/min
II. Ultrafiltration is opposed by colloidal osmotic pressure of plasma
III. Tubular secretion takes place in loop in Henle
IV. Tubular secretion takes place in glomerulus
V. Aldosterone induces greater sodium reabsorption
The correct option is

123. Choose the correct statement
I. Renal artery transport blood to kidney
II. Loop of Henle concentrate urine
III. Podocytes occur in inner wall of Bowman’s capsule
IV. Ultrafiltrate is blood plasma minus protein

124. Name the condition when the concentration of ketone body increases in urine

125. During embryogenesis the zygote undergoes

126. Reproduction is

127. Basis of DNA fingerprinting

128.

129. Which hormone is produced throughout the menstrual cycle?

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131. Egg secrets a chemical called …A… which is made up of …B… and sperm secretes a chemical called …C… made up of …D… The adhesion of sperm to the egg of same species through chemical recognition is called …E… . Here A to E refers to

132. Which one of the following cells have haploid number of chromosome?

133. Halophytes are

134. Pollination is an example of

135. The cells proximal (just next away from the tip) to the meristematic zone represents the phase of

136. Member of auxin, which is widely used to kill the dicotyledonous weed is

137. Auxin in plant means for

138.

139.

140. PEP is present in

141. In dark cycle, one molecule of glucose formation needed

142.

143. The deficiency of this micronutrient results in little leaf disease.

144. Pepsinogen is secreted by

145. Cattle fed with spoilt hay to sweet clover, which contains dicumarol

146. When a plasmolyzed cell is placed in a hypotonic solution then water will move inside the cell. Which force causes this?

147. Osmosis involves flow of

148. Which of the following statements are true/false?
1. The positive hydrostatic pressure is called turgor pressure.
2. Wall pressure exerts to prevent the increase of protoplasm size.
3. Diffusion is more rapid in liquids than in gases.
4. Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called imbibition.
5. Osmosis is movement of substance,
which takes place along a diffusion gradient.

149. Which one of the following is a disease of poultry?

150. Which of the following is insect pest resistance?

151. Manifestation of increase in the blood pressure of a person is called

152. The cardiac cycle in normal person is about

153. Simple sieve plate with single perforation is present in

154. Duramen is present in

155. Which of the following is an evidence for

156. Which of the following is an example of fossils?

157. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring in the members of family

158. The fleshy receptacle of syconous of fig encloses a number of

159. Observe the given floral diagram and choose the suitable floral formula from the followings NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-F-6  

160. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from a

161. Find out the correct order of number of bones in the parts of skull such as cranial bone, facial bone, hyoid bone and middle ear bone and middle ear bone respectively.

162. Decreased level of oestrogen is human body leads to

163. Zygomatic arch of rabbit is formed of

164. Stratification occurs in

165. Which of the following is an example of manmade ecosystem?

166. Pouched mammals are

167. Ink glands are found in

168. Which of the following nephridia does not found in earthworm?

169. India has nearly …… varieties of plants

170. The soil which is transported by wind is known as

171. Study the given figure of alimentary canal of cockroach. Identify the parts that helps in the removal of excretory products from the haemolymph NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-F-7  

172. Go through the given figure of reproductive system of earthworm and label A to G NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-F-8  

173. What is illustrated by the statement ‘Nothing lives forever, yet life continues’?

174. Among the following which is a common phenomenon exhibited by living and non-living organisms to show the feature of growth?

175. … is a book (taxonomic acid) which contain information about habitat, distribution, climate description and index of plant found in a particular area

176. The decoding and interpretation of visual information is carried out by which part of the brain?

177. Which of the following statements are correct for RAS?
I. It screens sensory information
II. It is important in overall activation and arousal
III. It is concerned with involuntary movements
IV. It is the seat of learning, memory, reasoning and creative ability

178. In law of independent assortment. How many factors are involved? (for a dihybrid cross)

179. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome in humans are always

NEET All Subjects Mock online test NEET All Chapters

The above link for NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set F will help you to check your understanding of all important concepts which have been prepared based on latest NEET NEET syllabus. The free online mock tests for All Chapters NEET NEET should be used by students to check their understanding. We bring here the biggest collection of All Chapters NEET All Subjects MCQ Test to help you prepare properly and get highest rank in exams. Students can attempt the mock tests for NEET All Subjects as many number of times as they want and also download a passing certificate after they have cleared the online test. These mock online tests for NEET All Subjects All Chapters have been developed by our teachers after thorough review of the latest book and based on pattern of questions in upcoming exams.

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The All Chapters mock online tests for NEET NEET All Subjects has been designed by our teachers to improve your understanding of this chapter. These online mock tests are structured so that it feels like real exam condition for students so that they can build their confidence and accuracy of answers. By daily practicing these MCQ based questions for NEET All Subjects with answers students will be able to identify key topics to focus on and improve performance. The mock tests have been updated as per the latest NCERT book for NEET All Subjects to help in your exam preparation.

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Daily practicing the All Chapters mock tests for NEET All Subjects has several benefits as they help to familiarize students with important concepts and effective time management skills. Each mock test for chapter All Chapters given above includes a variety of questions that  have been selected from Question Papers for NEET All Subjects and cover all important topics so that you have full preparation. After completing the NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set F, NEET students can review the answers to identify mistakes and improve further. Access these free NEET online mock tests anytime and take a step closer to achieving excellence in your All Subjects exams.

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a. The NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set F has 15-20 questions for NEET students as per NEET NEET All Subjects Sample Papers pattern.
b. Each All Chapters question has four options, students of NEET must read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.
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