NEET Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance MCQs Set 10

Biology Objective Questions and Answers: Molecular Basis of Inheritance

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: In the living world, the most abundant genetic material is
(a) lipid
(b) RNA
(c) protein
(d) DNA
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) DNA

Explanation:
1. Most living organisms use DNA as genetic material.
2. RNA is the genetic material only in some viruses.

Teacher's Note:
1. DNA is stable and so suits long-term storage of information.
2. RNA is more reactive.

Question 2: Which end of a polynucleotide chain has a free phosphate moiety?
(a) 5' end
(b) Neither end
(c) 3' end
(d) Both ends
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 5' end

Explanation:
1. The 5' end carries a free phosphate on the 5' carbon of the terminal sugar.
2. The 3' end carries a free OH group.

Teacher's Note:
1. A chain is written 5' to 3'.
2. New nucleotides are added at the 3' end.

Question 3: The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed by
(a) sugars and phosphates
(b) nitrogenous bases and sugars
(c) phosphates and bases
(d) only hydrogen bonds
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) sugars and phosphates

Explanation:
1. Sugar and phosphate groups joined by 3'-5' phosphodiester bonds form the backbone.
2. The bases project from it.

Teacher's Note:
1. The backbone is the same in every DNA.
2. Only the base sequence differs.

Question 4: What gives an approximately uniform distance between the two strands of the DNA double helix?
(a) Purine-purine hydrogen bonding
(b) Pyrimidine-pyrimidine hydrogen bonding
(c) Purine-pyrimidine hydrogen bonding
(d) Phosphodiester bonding
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Purine-pyrimidine hydrogen bonding

Explanation:
1. A purine always pairs with a pyrimidine.
2. The pair then has the same width all along the helix.

Teacher's Note:
1. Two purines would be too wide and two pyrimidines too narrow.
2. Hence A pairs with T and G with C.

Question 5: The flow of information from RNA to DNA is called
(a) translation
(b) replication
(c) reverse transcription
(d) transcription
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) reverse transcription

Explanation:
1. Reverse transcriptase makes DNA from an RNA template, as in retroviruses.
2. This is a reversal of normal transcription.

Teacher's Note:
1. Temin and Baltimore discovered it.
2. HIV uses this process.

Question 6: A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide is called a
(a) replicon
(b) cistron
(c) operon
(d) codon
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) cistron

Explanation:
1. A cistron is a DNA segment that codes for one polypeptide.
2. A codon is a triplet of bases on mRNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Cistron means functional gene unit.
2. An operon is a group of genes under one control.

Question 7: RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing only the process of
(a) termination
(b) splicing
(c) initiation
(d) elongation
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) elongation

Explanation:
1. RNA polymerase catalyses elongation.
2. It needs the sigma factor for initiation and the rho factor for termination.

Teacher's Note:
1. Initiation and termination need extra factors.
2. This is true in bacteria.

Question 8: Which scientist suggested that the genetic code should be made up of three nucleotides?
(a) Har Gobind Khorana
(b) Severo Ochoa
(c) George Gamow
(d) Marshall Nirenberg
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) George Gamow

Explanation:
1. George Gamow reasoned that 4 bases must give 64 combinations to code 20 amino acids.
2. So the code must be a triplet.

Teacher's Note:
1. A triplet code gives 64 codons.
2. Khorana later helped to decipher them.

Question 9: Which of the following is NOT a quality required of a genetic material?
(a) Stability
(b) Digestibility
(c) Replicability
(d) Mutability
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Digestibility

Explanation:
1. The genetic material must be able to replicate, be stable, allow slow mutation and express itself as phenotype.
2. Digestibility is not a requirement.

Teacher's Note:
1. The four qualities are replication, stability, mutability and expressibility.
2. RNA is less stable than DNA.

Question 10: Which centrifugation technique did Meselson and Stahl use to prove semi-conservative DNA replication?
(a) Ultra-filtration
(b) CsCl density gradient centrifugation
(c) Differential centrifugation
(d) Sucrose gradient centrifugation
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) CsCl density gradient centrifugation

Explanation:
1. They used caesium chloride density gradient centrifugation with 15N and 14N labelled DNA.
2. The bands showed the heavy, hybrid and light DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. The first generation showed a single hybrid band.
2. This ruled out conservative replication.

Question 11: Most prokaryotic genes are
(a) monocistronic and non-split
(b) polycistronic and split
(c) monocistronic and split
(d) polycistronic and non-split
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) polycistronic and non-split

Explanation:
1. Prokaryotic genes are usually polycistronic and have no introns.
2. Several cistrons form one transcription unit.

Teacher's Note:
1. The lac operon is polycistronic.
2. Eukaryotic genes are the opposite.

Question 12: A classical example of a point mutation is
(a) Turner syndrome
(b) Down syndrome
(c) sickle cell anaemia
(d) albinism by deletion
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) sickle cell anaemia

Explanation:
1. Sickle cell anaemia results from a single base change, GAG to GUG, in the beta globin gene.
2. Glutamic acid becomes valine.

Teacher's Note:
1. This is a base substitution.
2. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder.

Question 13: The tRNA is a compact molecule which in three dimensions looks like
(a) an inverted L
(b) a straight rod
(c) a clover leaf
(d) a double helix
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) an inverted L

Explanation:
1. In two dimensions tRNA looks like a clover leaf.
2. In three dimensions it folds into an inverted L.

Teacher's Note:
1. Do not mix up the 2-D and 3-D shapes.
2. The anticodon loop and the amino acid end lie at opposite ends.

Question 14: mRNA has additional sequences that are not translated. These are called
(a) promoters
(b) exons
(c) untranslated regions (UTRs)
(d) introns
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) untranslated regions (UTRs)

Explanation:
1. UTRs lie at the 5' end (before the start codon) and the 3' end (after the stop codon).
2. They help in efficient translation.

Teacher's Note:
1. Do not confuse UTRs with introns.
2. Introns are removed by splicing.

Question 15: The i gene of the lac operon codes for the
(a) transacetylase
(b) beta-galactosidase
(c) repressor
(d) permease
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) repressor

Explanation:
1. The regulatory gene i codes for the repressor protein.
2. It is expressed all the time.

Teacher's Note:
1. The i gene is not part of the operon proper.
2. It has its own promoter.

Question 16: In the lac operon, lactose acts as
(a) promoter
(b) inducer
(c) repressor
(d) corepressor
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) inducer

Explanation:
1. Lactose (allolactose) binds the repressor and makes it inactive.
2. Transcription then starts.

Teacher's Note:
1. An inducer switches on an inducible operon.
2. Lactose is the substrate and the inducer.

Question 17: Regulation of the lac operon by the repressor is referred to as
(a) post-transcriptional regulation
(b) positive regulation
(c) negative regulation
(d) translational regulation
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) negative regulation

Explanation:
1. The repressor switches the operon off, which is negative regulation.
2. An activator would be positive regulation.

Teacher's Note:
1. Negative regulation prevents transcription.
2. The inducer removes the block.

Question 18: The repressor of the lac operon is inactivated by interaction with the
(a) operator
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) inducer
(d) promoter
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) inducer

Explanation:
1. The inducer binds the repressor and changes its shape.
2. It can no longer bind the operator.

Teacher's Note:
1. The inducer is lactose or allolactose.
2. Then RNA polymerase moves on.

Question 19: In density gradient centrifugation of genomic DNA, the bulk DNA forms the major peak and the other small peaks are referred to as
(a) plasmid DNA
(b) cDNA
(c) satellite DNA
(d) mtDNA
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) satellite DNA

Explanation:
1. Repetitive DNA separates as small peaks from the bulk DNA.
2. It is called satellite DNA.

Teacher's Note:
1. Satellite DNA does not code for proteins.
2. It shows high variability.

Question 20: The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by
(a) Frederick Sanger
(b) Hershey
(c) Alec Jeffreys
(d) Kary Mullis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Alec Jeffreys

Explanation:
1. Alec Jeffreys developed DNA fingerprinting.
2. He used VNTR probes.

Teacher's Note:
1. Fingerprinting is used in forensics and paternity tests.
2. It needs very little DNA when PCR is used.

Question 21: VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA called
(a) ribosomal DNA
(b) mini-satellite
(c) microsatellite
(d) macro-satellite
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) mini-satellite

Explanation:
1. VNTR (variable number tandem repeats) are mini-satellites.
2. The repeats are about 10 to 100 bases long.

Teacher's Note:
1. The copy number of VNTR varies between individuals.
2. This gives a unique pattern.

Question 22: The sensitivity of the DNA fingerprinting technique has been increased by the use of
(a) electrophoresis
(b) restriction enzymes
(c) ligase
(d) polymerase chain reaction
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) polymerase chain reaction

Explanation:
1. PCR amplifies very small samples of DNA.
2. The fingerprint can then be made from a tiny sample.

Teacher's Note:
1. PCR was developed by Kary Mullis.
2. It uses Taq polymerase.

Question 23: Translation refers to the polymerisation of ___ to form a polypeptide.
(a) nucleotides
(b) amino acids
(c) fatty acids
(d) sugars
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) amino acids

Explanation:
1. Amino acids join by peptide bonds on the ribosome.
2. This forms a polypeptide.

Teacher's Note:
1. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA.
2. Translation is the synthesis of polypeptides.

Question 24: The ribosome also acts as a ___ for the formation of the peptide bond.
(a) catalyst
(b) template
(c) inhibitor
(d) substrate
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) catalyst

Explanation:
1. The 23S rRNA acts as a ribozyme in bacteria.
2. It catalyses peptide bond formation.

Teacher's Note:
1. This suggests RNA was the first catalyst.
2. It supports the RNA world idea.

Question 25: A translational unit in mRNA is flanked by the ___ and the ___ and codes for a polypeptide.
(a) start codon; stop codon
(b) promoter; terminator
(c) 5' UTR; 3' UTR only
(d) stop codon; start codon
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) start codon; stop codon

Explanation:
1. A translational unit lies between the start codon (AUG) and the stop codon.
2. The UTRs lie outside them.

Teacher's Note:
1. A transcription unit is flanked by promoter and terminator.
2. Do not mix up the two units.

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