NEET Biology Human Health and Disease MCQs Set 05

Download NEET MCQs for NEET Biology: Human Health and Disease

Access targeted multiple-choice questions for Human Health and Disease designed to align with the latest NEET academic syllabus for NEET Biology. These objective practice sets help students evaluate their conceptual understanding and improve exam readiness.

Chapter-wise Objective Questions: Human Health and Disease

Navigate directly to the 50 objective questions for Human Health and Disease using the digital viewer below. Each practice set includes verified answer keys, allowing students to instantly cross-check their work and identify areas requiring further revision.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Which factor has an effect on health?
(a) Genetic disorders
(b) Infections
(c) Life style
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:
1. Health is affected by genetic disorders, infections and lifestyle.
2. So all are correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being.

Question 2: Which is required for maintenance of good health?
(a) Balanced diet
(b) Personal hygiene
(c) Regular exercise
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:
1. Good health needs a balanced diet, hygiene and regular exercise.
2. All three are required.

Teacher's Note:
1. Yoga also helps maintain health.

Question 3: Which is necessary for achieving good health? (a) Awareness about diseases (b) Proper disposal of wastes (c) Control of vectors (d) Maintenance of hygienic food and water
(a) a
(b) a and c
(c) b and c
(d) a, b, c and d
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) a, b, c and d

Explanation:
1. All four measures are required for good public health.
2. They prevent the spread of infectious diseases.

Teacher's Note:
1. Vaccination is also important.

Question 4: Find the incorrect matching with regard to innate immunity.
(a) Physical barriers - skin, mucosa
(b) Cytokine barriers - interferons
(c) Cellular barriers - PMNL, neutrophils
(d) Physiological barriers - epithelial lining
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Physiological barriers - epithelial lining

Explanation:
1. Epithelial linings of tracts are part of physical barriers.
2. Physiological barriers are acid in stomach, saliva and tears.

Teacher's Note:
1. Innate immunity has four types of barriers.

Question 5: Find the odd one out with regard to the secondary immune response.
(a) Booster
(b) Anamnestic
(c) Low intensity
(d) Develops after subsequent contact with the same antigen
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Low intensity

Explanation:
1. The secondary (anamnestic) response is of high intensity.
2. It is booster-like and occurs after subsequent contact with the same antigen, so low intensity is the odd one.

Teacher's Note:
1. Memory cells give the quicker and stronger response.

Question 6: H2L2 represents the structure of which molecule?
(a) Antibody
(b) Antigen
(c) Pathogen
(d) Both antibody and antigen
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Antibody

Explanation:
1. An antibody has two heavy chains and two light chains (H2L2).
2. Antigens are not made of H and L chains.

Teacher's Note:
1. Antibodies are also called immunoglobulins.

Question 7: Which immune response is mainly responsible for graft rejection?
(a) Cell-mediated
(b) Humoral
(c) Antibody mediated
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Cell-mediated

Explanation:
1. Graft rejection is caused by the cell-mediated immune response (T-cells).
2. That is why tissue matching and immunosuppressants are used.

Teacher's Note:
1. The body can differentiate self from non-self.

Question 8: Antibodies are found in:
(a) Blood
(b) Pathogen
(c) Antigen
(d) Neurons
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Blood

Explanation:
1. Antibodies are proteins in the blood plasma (humoral immunity).
2. Pathogens and antigens are not sources of antibodies.

Teacher's Note:
1. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies.

Question 9: ATS (anti-tetanus serum) provides:
(a) Natural active innate immunity
(b) Natural passive innate immunity
(c) Artificial active acquired immunity
(d) Artificial passive acquired immunity
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Artificial passive acquired immunity

Explanation:
1. ATS contains preformed antibodies injected into the body.
2. Readymade antibodies given from outside give artificial passive acquired immunity.

Teacher's Note:
1. Vaccines give active immunity.

Question 10: AIDS does not spread by:
(a) Mere touch
(b) Physical contact
(c) Body fluids
(d) Both mere touch and physical contact
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Both mere touch and physical contact

Explanation:
1. HIV spreads through body fluids like blood and semen, not by touch or ordinary physical contact.
2. So (d) is correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Sharing needles and unprotected sex are major routes.

Question 11: The incubation period of AIDS is usually:
(a) 5-10 months
(b) 5-10 years
(c) 2-12 months
(d) 2-12 weeks
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 5-10 years

Explanation:
1. The period from HIV infection to AIDS is usually 5-10 years.
2. The antibodies appear within 2-12 weeks, which is the window period.

Teacher's Note:
1. The time may vary from person to person.

Question 12: Which cell acts as the factory of HIV?
(a) Macrophage
(b) T helper cells
(c) T killer cells
(d) N.K. cells
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Macrophage

Explanation:
1. HIV enters macrophages and makes copies of RNA by reverse transcription.
2. Macrophages continue to produce virus particles, acting as a HIV factory.

Teacher's Note:
1. T helper cells are depleted in AIDS.

Question 13: In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are especially caused by:
(a) Mycobacterium
(b) Toxoplasma
(c) Viruses and fungi
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:
1. The weak immune system lets Mycobacterium, Toxoplasma, viruses and fungi infect.
2. All of them are opportunistic.

Teacher's Note:
1. Death occurs due to these infections.

Question 14: ELISA is a diagnostic test for:
(a) Bacteria
(b) All viruses
(c) AIDS (HIV infection)
(d) Dreaded diseases only
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) AIDS (HIV infection)

Explanation:
1. ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay) is the preliminary test for HIV infection.
2. It detects antibodies or antigens of HIV in blood.

Teacher's Note:
1. Western blot is the confirmatory test.

Question 15: The slogan 'Don't die of ignorance' is used to create awareness about:
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Typhoid
(d) Rabies
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) AIDS

Explanation:
1. The slogan was used in AIDS awareness campaigns.
2. The disease spreads largely due to ignorance.

Teacher's Note:
1. NACO and WHO run AIDS awareness programmes.

Question 16: Which is a safe technique to detect cancer?
(a) Radiography
(b) Computed tomography (CT) scanning
(c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(d) Biopsy
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Explanation:
1. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiation to detect pathological and physiological changes.
2. Radiography and CT use X-rays, which are ionising.

Teacher's Note:
1. Biopsy is invasive.

Question 17: Most cancers are treated by a combination of: (a) Surgery (b) Radiotherapy (c) Chemotherapy
(a) a and b
(b) a and c
(c) b and c
(d) a, b and c
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) a, b and c

Explanation:
1. Cancers are treated by surgery, radiation and chemotherapy together.
2. So all three are used in combination.

Teacher's Note:
1. Immunotherapy using interferons is also used.

Question 18: Cancer detection is based on: (a) Biopsy (b) Histopathological study of tissues (c) Blood test (d) Bone marrow test
(a) a, b
(b) a, c and d
(c) a, b and c
(d) a, b, c and d
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) a, b, c and d

Explanation:
1. Biopsy and histopathology are used for solid tumours.
2. Blood and bone marrow tests are used for leukaemia, so all four are right.

Teacher's Note:
1. Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are also used.

Question 19: Which radiations can cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation? (a) Ionising radiations (b) X-rays (c) Non-ionising radiations (d) UV rays
(a) a and c
(b) b and d
(c) a and b
(d) a, b, c and d
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) a, b, c and d

Explanation:
1. Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionising radiations like UV cause DNA damage.
2. All four therefore are correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Chemical carcinogens in tobacco smoke are also physical-chemical inducers.

Question 20: Which interferon is a biological response modifier that activates the immune system for destroying tumours?
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) Both beta and gamma
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Alpha

Explanation:
1. Alpha-interferon is the biological response modifier used in cancer immunotherapy.
2. It activates the immune system to destroy tumours.

Teacher's Note:
1. Biological response modifiers are used in immunotherapy.

Question 21: The drugs commonly abused (opioids, cannabinoids and coca alkaloids) are mostly obtained from ......... while some are obtained from ........
(a) Fungi, non-flowering plants
(b) Flowering plants, fungi
(c) Fungi, flowering plants
(d) Non-flowering plants, fungi
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Flowering plants, fungi

Explanation:
1. Most of these drugs come from flowering plants like poppy, hemp and coca.
2. Some are from fungi, for example LSD from Claviceps.

Teacher's Note:
1. Atropa belladonna and Datura are also sources of hallucinogens.

Question 22: Smack; diacetylmorphine; white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound; extracted from latex of the poppy plant. These statements are correct for:
(a) Morphine
(b) Heroin
(c) Cocaine
(d) Barbiturates
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Heroin

Explanation:
1. Heroin is chemically diacetylmorphine, commonly called smack.
2. It is a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound derived from morphine of poppy latex.

Teacher's Note:
1. Heroin is a depressant that slows body functions.

Question 23: The period between ......... of age may be thought of as the adolescence period.
(a) 18-21 years
(b) 12-21 years
(c) 12-18 years
(d) 18-25 years
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 12-18 years

Explanation:
1. Adolescence is the period between 12 and 18 years of age.
2. It is a bridge between childhood and adulthood.

Teacher's Note:
1. Adolescence is also a vulnerable period for drug abuse.

Question 24: Which disorder is not related to smoking? (a) Lung cancer (b) Bronchitis (c) Emphysema (d) Coronary heart disease (e) Gastric ulcer (f) Urinary bladder cancer (g) Throat cancer
(a) a, b, e, g
(b) a, b, c, f, g
(c) c, d, f
(d) All are related
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All are related

Explanation:
1. Smoking is linked with all of these, including gastric ulcer and bladder cancer.
2. So no disorder in the list is unrelated.

Teacher's Note:
1. Smoking increases CO in blood, reducing oxygen delivery.

Question 25: Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by: (a) Anxiety (b) Shakiness (c) Nausea (d) Sweating
(a) a, c
(b) b, c
(c) a, c, d
(d) a, b, c and d
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) a, b, c and d

Explanation:
1. Withdrawal symptoms include anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating.
2. So all four are right.

Teacher's Note:
1. Withdrawal can be severe and even life threatening.

Question 26: Which measure would be useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse among adolescents? (a) Avoid undue peer pressure (b) Seeking professional and medical help (c) Looking for danger signs (d) Education and counselling (e) Seeking help from parents and peers
(a) a, b, d
(b) a, c, d, e
(c) c, e
(d) a, b, c, d, e
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) a, b, c, d, e

Explanation:
1. All five measures are recommended in NCERT.
2. Together they help prevent and control abuse.

Teacher's Note:
1. Child-parent communication is important.

Question 27: Which of the following are related to ringworm? (a) Microsporum (b) Trichophyton (c) Epidermophyton
(a) a
(b) a and b
(c) a and c
(d) a, b and c
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) a, b and c

Explanation:
1. Ringworm is caused by fungi of genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
2. So all three are correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Ringworms show dry scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp.

Question 28: (a) Salmonella is the pathogenic bacterium (b) sustained high fever (39-40 degrees C) (c) intestinal perforation in severe cases (d) confirmed by Widal test (e) 'Mary Mallon' was a carrier. These statements are true for:
(a) Plague
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Typhoid
(d) Dysentery
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Typhoid

Explanation:
1. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid.
2. Widal test confirms it and Typhoid Mary was a carrier.

Teacher's Note:
1. Typhoid spreads by contaminated food and water.

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