ISC Class 12 Political Science Sample Paper 2027 with Solutions

SECTION A - 16 MARKS

Question 1

(i) Identify the authoritative source used in the U.S to allocate and divide powers between the federal and the state governments? [1 Mark]
(a) The President of the United States
(b) The Constitution of the United States
(c) The Congress and the state legislatures
(d) The Supreme Court of the United States

Answer: (b) The Constitution of the United States

The U.S. Constitution formally outlines and divides powers between the federal government and individual states.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember that federal systems derive their power distribution directly from a written supreme constitution.
b) Do not confuse the constitutional source with bodies that interpret it, such as the Supreme Court.

(ii) Choose the correct option that matches the types of jurisdictions given in Column I to their description in Column II. [1 Mark]

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(d) A-2, B-4, C-2, D-3

Answer: (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (the marking scheme also accepts option (d) as printed in key)

Original jurisdiction involves direct approach for fundamental rights; writ deals with specific writs like quo warranto; appellate involves special leave; advisory involves presidential references.

Teacher's Note:
a) Match each jurisdictional term carefully with its constitutional mechanism.
b) Note that the official key lists option (b) as the correct match.

(iii) Choose the statements that exhibit the commonality between the President of India and the President of USA. [1 Mark]
(P) Both are the supreme commanders of their respective armed forces.
(Q) Both are elected directly through an Electoral College System.
(R) Both can be re-elected to the office at any number of times.
(S) Both possess the authority to either assent or veto bills passed by their respective legislatures.

(a) Only (P) and (R)
(b) Only (Q) and (S)
(c) Only (R) and (S)
(d) Only (P) and (S)

Answer: (d) Only (P) and (S)

Both are supreme commanders of armed forces and possess regular assent or veto powers over legislative bills.

Teacher's Note:
a) The President of India is elected indirectly, whereas the US President is elected via an Electoral College. Statement R is incorrect for India due to constitutional conventions/limits.
b) Verify individual powers carefully when comparing parliamentary and presidential heads of state.

(iv) The Cabinet of a state in India attempted to mandate job reservations for locals in private companies. The proposed bill aimed to reserve 50% of management jobs and 70-75% of non-management roles in private industries for local candidates who possess proficiency in local language.
Which political principle is reflected in the above situation? [1 Mark]
(a) Sons of the Soil
(b) National integration
(c) Local Self Government
(d) Secularisation of politics

Answer: (a) Sons of the Soil

The preference given to native residents of a state over outsiders in employment reflects the Sons of the Soil doctrine.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Sons of the Soil theory emphasizes regional identity and local job preferences.
b) Do not confuse this with local self-government, which relates to panchayats and municipalities.

(v) Country X follows a constitution where the powers of the government are clearly written, and courts exercise the power to invalidate laws if they violate the constitutional provisions.
Which feature of a constitution does Country X demonstrate? [1 Mark]
(a) A written rigid constitution with judicial review
(b) A rigid constitution with the supremacy of the judiciary
(c) A written flexible constitution with judicial independence
(d) An unwritten and flexible constitution without judicial review

Answer: (a) A written rigid constitution with judicial review

Clear written provisions combined with the power of courts to invalidate unconstitutional laws indicate a written, rigid constitution with judicial review.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judicial review is a key feature of constitutional supremacy present in written and rigid systems.
b) Ensure you distinguish between constitutional flexibility and rigidity based on amendment procedures.

(vi) Given below are two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read the two statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion: The Venkatachaliah Commission (2002) emphasised that an inquiry into the 'basic structure' of the Indian constitution lay beyond the scope of its work.
Reason: The Constitution can be amended by majority of two-third of the members of both the Houses of the Parliament. [1 Mark]
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Answer: (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.

Both statements are factually correct statements concerning constitutional review and amendment, but the amendment procedure does not explain why the commission's scope excluded basic structure inquiries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Analyze assertion-reason questions by checking if the reason directly causes or explains the assertion.
b) Both statements are true independently under Indian constitutional law.

(vii) Given below are two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read the two statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion: All democracies divide their geographic territory and population into several electoral constituencies.
Reason: In liberal democracies, elections for representatives are conducted only through the First Past the Post system. [1 Mark]
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Answer: (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.

Democracies do divide territories into constituencies, but liberal democracies use various electoral systems like Proportional Representation, not solely the First Past the Post system.

Teacher's Note:
a) The word 'only' makes the reason statement incorrect because many democracies use proportional representation systems.
b) Constituency delimitation is a universal practice in territorial democracies.

(viii) Which form of government is a strong, stable and all-powerful central government? [1 Mark]
(a) Federal
(b) Unitary
(c) Presidential
(d) Parliamentary

Answer: (b) Unitary

A unitary government vests all powers in a single central authority, making it strong, stable, and concentrated.

Teacher's Note:
a) Unitary systems lack constitutional division of power with regional units.
b) This centralization ensures administrative uniformity and immense central power.

(ix) Arrange the following stages in the correct order of passing a financial bill in the United States until it becomes a law. [1 Mark]
(P) Ratification of the financial bill by the US President
(Q) Introduction of the financial bill in the House of Representatives
(R) Passage of bill by the House of Representatives
(S) Bill goes to the Senate for amendment
Select the correct option from the following:
(a) (S), (R), (P) and (Q)
(b) (Q), (R), (S) and (P)
(c) (P), (Q), (R) and (S)
(d) (Q), (S), (R) and (P)

Answer: (b) (Q), (R), (S) and (P)

Financial bills originate in the House (Q), are passed by the House (R), sent to the Senate for changes (S), and finally ratified by the President (P).

Teacher's Note:
a) Revenue bills in the US must originate in the House of Representatives.
b) Trace legislative stages sequentially to avoid confusion in multi-step institutional processes.

(x) A state allows limited private economic activity and does not seek to control citizens' personal beliefs. It strictly suppresses political opposition and concentrates power in the executive.
This political system is BEST categorised as: [1 Mark]
(a) Communist
(b) Totalitarian
(c) Authoritarian
(d) Absolute monarchy

Answer: (c) Authoritarian

Authoritarian regimes suppress political opposition and concentrate executive power while allowing some economic freedom and private life.

Teacher's Note:
a) Totalitarian systems seek total control over both public and private life, whereas authoritarian systems focus primarily on political control.
b) Look closely at the degree of economic and personal freedom allowed when classifying political systems.

(xi) Which feature is common to both the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts? [1 Mark]

Answer: Constitution of State Election Commission

Both amendments mandate the establishment of a State Election Commission to conduct local body elections.

Teacher's Note:
a) The 73rd Amendment relates to rural local bodies and the 74th to urban local bodies.
b) Both share structural features like regular elections, reservation of seats, and State Finance Commissions.

(xii) Which Article in the Constitution of India can be suspended during National Emergency? [1 Mark]

Answer: Article 19

Freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended during a National Emergency declared on grounds of war or external aggression.

Teacher's Note:
a) Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
b) Memorize emergency provisions and their impact on fundamental rights thoroughly.

(xiii) G.S. Ghurye, a sociologist, studied Indian society and offered six distinctive principles that defined a particular trait unique to Indian society. According to him, this system compartmentalised the population into groups and then arranged it into a vertical hierarchy.
Identify the particular social system indicated above that poses a challenge to Indian democracy. [1 Mark]

Answer: Casteism

The vertical hierarchical compartmentalization of society refers to the caste system or casteism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ghurye's sociological work highlights caste as a fundamental structural feature of traditional Indian society.
b) Casteism creates inequalities that challenge democratic principles of social equality.

(xiv) A two-party system ensures greater government stability than a multi-party system. Comment. [1 Mark]

Answer: A two-party system usually produces clear majority, thus making decision-making easier and governments more stable than a multi-party system which is coalition driven and inconsistent in governance due to the threat of withdrawal of support by other parties.

Teacher's Note:
a) Two-party systems eliminate the uncertainty of coalition politics.
b) Keep answers precise for 1-mark analytical questions.

(xv) 'The Council of States shall not be subjected to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members shall retire every second year.'
(Source: The Constitution of India)
Which doctrinal feature of the Council of States is highlighted in the above statement? [1 Mark]

Answer: Permanency of the upper house

The continuous nature and rotational retirement of members highlight the permanent character of the Rajya Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Unlike the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution.
b) Staggered terms ensure continuity of experience and institutional memory.

(xvi) The Directive Principles of State Policy focus on improving living conditions and ensuring justice for all citizens. What does this reflect about their objective? [1 Mark]

Answer: This reflects the objective of establishing a welfare state and achieving social and economic justice. It shows that the government focuses equally on reducing inequalities, securing fair distribution of resources, and protecting vulnerable communities rather than just maintaining law and order.

Teacher's Note:
a) DPSPs transform the Indian state from a mere police state into a welfare state.
b) Emphasize socio-economic justice when explaining directive principles.

SECTION B - 32 MARKS

Question 2

"Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article."
(Source: The Constitution of India)

(i) Identify the Article of the Indian Constitution from where the above extract is taken. [1 Mark]

Answer: Article 368 of the Constitution of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 368 contains the procedure for amending the Constitution.
b) Cite the exact article number for full marks.

(ii) According to the given extract, which body is empowered to amend the Constitution? Explain the procedure followed for it. [3 Marks]

Answer:
The power to amend the Constitution has been vested in the Parliament of India.
Procedure for amendment:
1. Special Majority of Parliament: Most constitutional provisions can be amended by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
2. Special Majority plus ratification by States: Certain provisions (such as those affecting federal features) require not only a special majority in Parliament but also ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures before the amendment becomes valid.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly distinguish between ordinary legislative majority and constitutional amendment majorities.
b) State ratification is mandatory for federal provisions under Article 368.

Question 3

Study the bar graph below that represents hypothetical data on the annual use of various parliamentary devices in a democratic legislature. Answer the following questions based on it.

[Figure: Bar graph titled 'Usage Frequency of Parliamentary Tools (Annual)' showing Question Hour used 120 times, Cut Motions 18 times, Censure Motion 6 times, and No confidence motion 1 time, on a vertical scale from 0 to 140.]

(i) Which basic principle of parliamentary democracy is reflected in the above graph? Briefly discuss its relevance. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The principle reflected is Ministerial Responsibility, especially Collective Responsibility.
2. It ensures that the Council of Ministers retains the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha and remains accountable for all decisions and actions of the government to the general public.

Teacher's Note:
a) Question Hour and motions are key instruments of legislative control over the executive.
b) Collective responsibility forms the bedrock of parliamentary governance.

(ii) Examine the purpose of the most frequently used parliamentary device. Why are the other parliamentary instruments used sparingly? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The most frequently used parliamentary device is Question Hour. It allows members of the legislature to ask questions directly and hold the government accountable for its actions and policies, leading to policy review as loopholes are revealed.
2. Other devices are used sparingly because instruments like a No Confidence Motion lead to government resignation and dissolution, causing political instability; Cut Motions apply only to budget approvals; and Censure Motions are disruptive with severe political implications.

Teacher's Note:
a) Question Hour is a daily routine mechanism, making its frequency high.
b) Severe political consequences restrict the frequent invocation of no-confidence and censure motions.

Question 4

(i) The table given below shows the indicators of performance of local self-government in India. Analyse it and answer the given questions.

(Source: Economic & Political Weekly, March 2025)

(a) Compare the level of representation of women representatives with actual participation in meetings between rural and urban local bodies. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Firstly, women's representation is slightly higher in Rural Local Bodies (46%) compared to Urban Local Bodies (44%) indicating greater rural inclusion, possibly due to reservation policies.
2. Secondly, participation is significantly higher in Rural Local Bodies (62%) than in Urban Local Bodies (35%), suggesting rural women are more actively involved in discussions and decision-making.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare both representation percentages and participation rates across rural and urban segments.
b) Data interpretation questions require precise referencing of table figures.

(b) What does the above data suggest about the relationship between political presence of women and financial autonomy given to them? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Financial autonomy is higher in Urban Local Bodies (41%) than in Rural Local Bodies (38%). This implies that although rural women participate more in meetings, urban women representatives may have slightly greater control over financial matters.

Teacher's Note:
a) High political participation does not automatically correlate with higher financial autonomy.
b) Urban local bodies show a different balance between representation and financial powers.

OR

(ii) 'The Times of India reported that the Karnataka Assembly passed the Greater Bengaluru Governance (Amendment) Bill, 2025, reaffirming that municipal corporations must remain autonomous.'
(Source: Adapted from Times of India, August 20, 2025)

(a) Which Constitutional Amendment does the above extract refer to? [1 Mark]

Answer: 74th Amendment Act, 1992

Teacher's Note:
a) The 74th Amendment deals with urban local governance (municipalities).
b) Note the exact enactment year.

(b) Analyse the key provisions of the constitutional reform highlighted in the extract. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Decentralization of power: Empowered municipalities to function as effective institutions of self-governance and manage local affairs like urban planning, sanitation, and public health.
2. Three-tier structure: Mandated Municipal Corporations in big cities, Municipalities in medium cities, and Nagar Panchayats in transitional areas.
3. Reservations: Provided reservation of seats for SCs, STs, OBCs, and not less than one-third of total seats for women.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize mandatory provisions like regular elections and finance commissions.
b) Urban local bodies derive their constitutional legitimacy from Part IXA.

Question 5 [4 Marks]

Comment on the role of caste in Indian politics.

Answer:
1. Political Socialization: Caste groups influence political orientations, attitudes, and voting preferences through collective loyalties.
2. Leadership Recruitment: Parties often select candidates based on the dominant caste composition of a constituency, and voters may favor leaders from their own caste.
3. Policy Formulation: Political parties consider caste dynamics and the socio-economic demands of various caste groups when formulating public policies and welfare schemes.
4. Identity Politics: Caste serves as a prominent mobilization tool, fostering community consciousness and participation in the electoral process.

Teacher's Note:
a) Caste plays both integrative and divisive roles in Indian democracy.
b) Mention candidate selection, voting behavior, and policy formulation to cover all dimensions.

Question 6

'Eventually, they settled on the concept of a shared power - the President would make appointments with the 'advice and consent' of the Senate.'
(Source: https://www.senate.gov/artandhistory/senate-stories/constitution-day-20…)

(i) What is meant by the term 'shared power' in the context of appointments? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The term shared power means that appointment making is not the sole authority of the US President.
2. It is shared between the President and the Senate, where the President nominates candidates, but the Senate must approve the nomination.

Teacher's Note:
a) This reflects checks and balances in the US presidential system.
b) Both executive nomination and legislative confirmation are mandatory.

(ii) How does the Senate's exercise of power of 'advice and consent' act as a check on the President's authority? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Executive Appointments: Nominees for federal judgeships or cabinet posts cannot take office without confirmation by a majority of the Senate, preventing arbitrary executive appointments.
2. Treaty Ratification: Treaties negotiated by the President with foreign nations are invalid unless ratified by a two-thirds vote in the Senate.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain both appointment confirmation and treaty ratification.
b) This mechanism prevents executive overreach in foreign policy and governance.

Question 7 [4 Marks]

(i) Contrast the relationship between the Executive and the Legislature in the political systems of India and the United States.

Answer:
1. Separation vs Integration: The US follows a strict separation of powers where the President is not a member of Congress, whereas India has a parliamentary system where the executive is drawn from and accountable to the legislature.
2. Accountability: In India, the executive remains in office only as long as it enjoys a majority in the Lok Sabha (collective responsibility), whereas in the US, the President serves a fixed term independent of legislative confidence.
3. Leadership: India has dual executives (nominal President and real Prime Minister), while the US has a single executive head (the President).

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast parliamentary accountability with presidential separation of powers.
b) Use clear comparative headings or points for clarity.

OR

(ii) Discuss the conditions under which a National Emergency may be declared. Assess the effects of such proclamation on Centre - State relations. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Conditions for Declaration: Under Article 352, a National Emergency can be declared when the security of India or any part of it is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
2. Impact on Federal Structure: The federal system temporarily transforms into a unitary one; Parliament can legislate on State List subjects.
3. Executive Control: The Union executive can issue binding administrative directions to state governments, centralizing governance until the emergency ceases.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly specify the three grounds for National Emergency under Article 352.
b) Emphasize the temporary centralization of legislative and executive powers.

Question 8 [4 Marks]

With reference to the pie chart given below, identify the system by which subjects are allocated in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. What does this indicate about the nature of the Indian State?

[Figure: Pie chart titled 'Legislative Powers in accordance to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution' showing Union List, State List, and Concurrent List divisions.]

Answer:
1. Identification: The pie chart indicates the Three-List System (Union List, State List, and Concurrent List) under the Seventh Schedule.
2. Nature of Indian State: It reflects the quasi-federal character of the Indian Constitution, where power distribution heavily favors the Central government by assigning a larger number of subjects and revenue-generating powers to the Union.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the three lists correctly from the chart.
b) Highlight the centralizing bias in Indian federalism.

Question 9 [4 Marks]

(i) State four constitutional provisions or conditions that ensure the independence of judiciary in India.

Answer:
1. Appointment of Judges: Judges are appointed through a consultative mechanism involving the judiciary, minimizing pure executive patronage.
2. Security of Tenure: Judges enjoy secure tenure up to retirement age and cannot be easily removed except through a rigorous parliamentary impeachment process.
3. Salaries and Allowances: Salaries and service conditions cannot be altered to their disadvantage during their term of office.
4. Separation from Executive: Under Article 50, the judiciary is explicitly separated from the executive branch of government.

Teacher's Note:
a) List any four distinct safeguards guaranteeing judicial independence.
b) Emphasize tenure security and financial independence.

OR

(ii) Briefly discuss the strength and tenure rules of the judges of the Supreme Courts of India and the United States. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Supreme Court of India - Strength: Comprises 34 judges (1 Chief Justice and 33 other judges).
2. Supreme Court of India - Tenure: Judges hold office until they attain the age of 65 years, subject to removal by impeachment.
3. Supreme Court of the United States - Strength: Comprises 9 judges (1 Chief Justice and 8 associate judges).
4. Supreme Court of the United States - Tenure: Judges enjoy life tenure (during good behavior), with provisions for voluntary retirement or removal by impeachment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare both numerical strength and retirement rules accurately.
b) Note the distinction between India's age-based retirement and US life tenure.

SECTION C - 32 MARKS

Question 10 [8 Marks]

(i) The United States follows a federal model, while the United Kingdom operates under a unitary system. Analyse how the distribution of power impacts the nature of polity in their respective political systems.

Answer:
1. Division of Power in US: Federalism divides power between the central government and states constitutionally, ensuring neither is subordinate to the other, supported by a written rigid constitution and bicameral legislature.
2. US Polity Impact: Fosters decentralized governance and regional autonomy, though it can occasionally cause friction between state and national policies.
3. Centralization in UK: The UK operates under a unitary system where all sovereignty rests in a single central institution (Parliament), accompanied by an unwritten flexible constitution and single citizenship.
4. UK Polity Impact: Promotes administrative uniformity and swift national policymaking, offering fewer institutional vetoes to regional minorities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare federal pluralism with unitary centralization.
b) Structure the answer by discussing features and impacts for both countries separately.

OR

(ii) 'India follows a system where executive authority is shared, while the United States adheres to a strict separation of powers.' Considering this distinction, compare the two types of executive systems. [8 Marks]

Answer:
1. Head of State and Government: In the US presidential system, the President is both head of state and head of government; in India's parliamentary system, the President is a nominal head while real executive authority rests with the Prime Minister.
2. Separation vs Division: The US system is based on strict separation of powers between executive and legislature, whereas India's system integrates them, as ministers are drawn from Parliament.
3. Responsibility: The US executive is not responsible to or removable by Congress through a no-confidence vote; the Indian executive is directly accountable to the Lok Sabha.
4. Tenure Stability: US executives serve a fixed term unaffected by legislative majorities, whereas Indian governments must resign immediately upon losing majority support.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight structural differences between presidential and parliamentary systems.
b) Focus on accountability, executive leadership, and tenure rules.

Question 11 [8 Marks]

(i) Among the various mechanisms of franchise, Universal Adult Franchise is considered the most equitable. Justify this statement by commenting on its validity.

Answer:
1. Foundation of Democracy: Universal adult franchise ensures that every citizen of voting age has the right to vote without discrimination based on caste, class, gender, or wealth.
2. Political Equality: It operationalizes the principle of 'one person, one vote, one value', upholding democratic equality.
3. Inclusive Governance: It ensures that marginalized and vulnerable groups have a voice in choosing their representatives, preventing minority rule by elites.
4. Democratic Legitimacy: Governments elected through universal suffrage enjoy widespread legitimacy and accountability.
5. Civil Liberty and Awareness: It fosters political consciousness, empowers citizens, and strengthens civil liberties across society.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain why universal adult franchise is vital for modern democratic states.
b) Support points with concepts like political equality and inclusivity.

OR

(ii) It is often argued that a multi-party system is suitable for diverse democracies like India. Justify this statement by analysing how a multi-party framework accommodates diversity. [8 Marks]

Answer:
1. Representation of Diversity: A multi-party system provides political space for varied regional, linguistic, religious, and cultural groups to form parties and voice their unique interests.
2. Political Inclusivity: Unlike two-party systems, multi-party frameworks ensure minority communities and regional factions find adequate legislative representation.
3. Preventing Monopolization: It curbs authoritarian tendencies and prevents the concentration of power within a single dominant party.
4. Responsive Governance and Coalitions: It encourages coalition building, forcing parties to negotiate, compromise, and build consensus, keeping governance responsive to diverse sections of society.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect multi-party systems directly to socio-cultural pluralism in India.
b) Discuss coalition dynamics and regional representation as key benefits.

Question 12 [8 Marks]

Outline four differences between Flexible and Rigid Constitutions. Support your answer with an example for each.

Answer:
1. Method of Amendment: Flexible constitutions can be amended easily through ordinary legislative processes, whereas rigid constitutions require special, complex amendment procedures.
2. Difficulty Level: Amendments in flexible systems are quick and simple, while rigid constitutions make amendments slow and time-consuming.
3. Stability and Adaptability: Flexible constitutions adapt easily to changing circumstances, whereas rigid constitutions prioritize stability and protect fundamental constitutional principles.
4. Institutional Suitability: Flexible constitutions are typically suited to unitary states, while rigid constitutions are suited to federal states.
5. Examples: The Constitution of the United Kingdom serves as an example of a flexible constitution, while the Constitution of the United States exemplifies a rigid constitution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Present differences across clear parameters such as amendment procedure and suitability.
b) Provide the UK and US examples explicitly as required.

Question 13

Read the excerpt given below and answer the questions that follow.
A certain state in India restricted the entry of women to sacred spaces which was challenged by a group of petitioners. After extensive hearings, the Supreme Court, by a majority decision, held that the practice of denying entry to women of a particular age group could not be sustained in a democratic republic governed by the Constitution. The Court observed that social practices and traditions must conform to constitutional principles, and that exclusion based on biological characteristics undermines the idea of equal citizenship. It further stated that dignity, individual autonomy, and equal participation in public spaces are essential features of democratic governance.
(Source (edited): Based on a story from The Times of India - 29 September 2018)

(i) Which Fundamental Right and the corresponding Article can be inferred as being challenged in this case? [2 Marks]

Answer: Right to Equality and Article 14

Teacher's Note:
a) Exclusion based on gender violates the right to equality under Article 14.
b) Identify both the Fundamental Right category and the exact article number.

(ii) A group of citizens approached the Supreme Court to challenge the exclusion.

(a) Which writ would be most suitable in this case and why? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mandamus.
2. It is issued to compel a public authority to perform its legal or constitutional duty, ensuring management authorities of public religious/sacred spaces cannot deny access to women contrary to constitutional provisions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mandamus means 'we command' and is directed against public or statutory authorities.
b) Link the writ directly to the enforcement of constitutional duties.

(b) Under which Fundamental Right can a citizen directly move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights? [1 Mark]

Answer: Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)

Teacher's Note:
a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
b) It grants citizens the right to move the Supreme Court directly for writ remedies.

(iii) How do mass protests and resistance to judicial decisions impact democratic institutions? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Undermining Judicial Authority: Open resistance to court judgments weakens the authority of the judiciary and erodes the rule of law.
2. Public Order and Instability: When protests turn violent, they damage public property, threaten lives, and diminish citizens' faith in institutional functioning.
3. Deepening Social Divisions: Mass mobilization driven by narrow religious, regional, or emotional appeals deepens social cleavages, challenging national unity and democratic stability.

Teacher's Note:
a) Acknowledge that while peaceful dissent is democratic, defying judicial verdicts and resorting to violence harms institutions.
b) Structure the answer into clear points covering judicial authority, public order, and social unity.