ISC Class 12 Political Science Sample Paper 2023 with Solutions

SECTION A - 16 MARKS

Question 1

(i) Which one of the following uses force and coercion in the formation of government? [1 Mark]
(a) Totalitarian State
(b) Democratic State
(c) Federal State
(d) Constitutional Monarchy

Answer: (a) Totalitarian State

Totalitarian regimes exercise total control over society through force, suppression of opposition, and coercion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Totalitarian states reject pluralism and use state-sponsored coercion to maintain power.
b) Students must not confuse this with democratic or federal states which derive legitimacy from the consent of the governed.

(ii) The Constitutional position of the President of India is the most similar to the ______________. [1 Mark]
(a) President of the US
(b) President of Russia
(c) Monarch of Britain
(d) Prime Minister of Britain

Answer: (c) Monarch of Britain

Both the Indian President and the British Monarch act as constitutional or titular heads of state, exercising powers on the advice of the cabinet.

Teacher's Note:
a) The President of India is the nominal executive, similar to the British Crown under a parliamentary system.
b) Avoid choosing the US President, who represents a presidential system with real executive powers.

(iii) Liberal Democracy involves limited government interference. The government exercises only those powers that are granted to it by the __________. [1 Mark]
(a) people of the country
(b) Union Legislature
(c) head of the state
(d) Constitution

Answer: (d) Constitution

In a constitutional liberal democracy, government authority is limited and defined by the fundamental law of the land, the Constitution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Constitutionalism ensures that government organs operate within legally prescribed boundaries.
b) Do not confuse the ultimate source of sovereignty (people) with the institutional instrument that explicitly grants and limits government powers (the Constitution).

(iv) The hallmark of a federal form of government is: [1 Mark]
(a) division of powers.
(b) distribution of powers.
(c) separation of powers.
(d) combination of powers.

Answer: (a) division of powers.

Federalism is characterized by a constitutional division of powers between the central government and regional/state governments.

Teacher's Note:
a) Division of powers between distinct levels of government is the defining structural feature of a federation.
b) Separation of powers applies to the legislature, executive, and judiciary within a government tier, not to federal levels.

(v) A ____________ constitution is less flexible and less adaptable to changing times. [1 Mark]

Answer: Rigid

A rigid constitution requires a special, difficult amending procedure, making it less adaptable to rapid socio-political changes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rigidity refers to the complexity of the amendment process rather than the durability of the document.
b) Ensure the exact term 'rigid' is used as expected by examiners.

(vi) The process for electing the members of the upper house of the Indian Parliament is called _____________. [1 Mark]

Answer: Indirect election

Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Direct elections involve voting by citizens directly, whereas Rajya Sabha members are chosen by state legislators.
b) Use the precise term 'indirect election' or 'indirectly elected'.

(vii) The special power to declare a subject of state list as a subject of national importance belongs to ___________. [1 Mark]

Answer: Rajya Sabha

Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority empowering Parliament to legislate on a State List matter.

Teacher's Note:
a) This is an exclusive legislative power of the upper house reflecting federal equilibrium.
b) Mentioning 'Rajya Sabha' or 'Council of States' is mandatory for full credit.

(viii) Loyalty for one's own region over and above the interests of the nation is known as _____________. [1 Mark]

Answer: Regionalism

Regionalism prioritizes regional identity and sectional interests above national unity and integrity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Regionalism becomes a disintegrating force when regional loyalty supersedes national patriotism.
b) Distinguish clearly between healthy regional consciousness and narrow regionalism.

(ix) State whether the following statements are True or False:

(a) Judicial activism implies a pro-active approach of the judiciary towards prevailing socio-economic and political apathy in the country. [1 Mark]

Answer: True

Judicial activism represents an assertive role played by the courts to protect constitutional rights and fill legislative or executive vacuums.

Teacher's Note:
a) It is often manifested through Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
b) Students must write just 'True' or 'False' as instructed.

(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable in the court of law. [1 Mark]

Answer: False

DPSPs contained in Part IV of the Constitution are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by any court.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, whereas DPSPs are guidelines for governance.
b) A common error is confusing the enforceability of Fundamental Rights with DPSPs.

(c) The President of the USA is not a member of the legislature. [1 Mark]

Answer: True

Under the presidential system of the USA, the principle of separation of powers ensures the executive and legislative branches are distinct and independent.

Teacher's Note:
a) The US President neither sits in Congress nor introduces bills directly.
b) Contrast this with parliamentary systems where the executive is drawn from the legislature.

(d) The 74th Amendment of 1992 lays down the rules and regulations regarding urban local self-government. [1 Mark]

Answer: True

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 institutionalized municipalities and urban local governance in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The 73rd Amendment relates to rural local self-government (Panchayati Raj), while the 74th relates to urban areas.
b) Memorize the specific constitutional amendment numbers and their subject matter.

(x) Answer the following questions in one word:

(a) The introductory part of the Indian Constitution. [1 Mark]

Answer: Preamble

The Preamble serves as the preface or introduction outlining the objectives and philosophy of the Constitution.

Teacher's Note:
a) One-word answers must be precise.
b) Spelling must be accurate ('Preamble').

(b) A state that treats all religious beliefs and practices with equal respect. [1 Mark]

Answer: Secular

A secular state maintains neutrality and grants equal status and protection to all religions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Indian secularism implies 'Sarva Dharma Sambhava' (equal respect for all religions).
b) Avoid writing descriptive sentences when a single word is asked.

(c) A state that consists of both federal and unitary features. [1 Mark]

Answer: Quasi-federal

A quasi-federal state (like India) possesses a federal structure with strong unitary biases.

Teacher's Note:
a) K.C. Wheare described the Indian Constitution as quasi-federal.
b) Terms like federal or unitary alone do not capture this dual nature adequately.

(d) The right to vote given to all adult citizens without any discrimination. [1 Mark]

Answer: Franchise

Universal adult franchise grants voting rights to all citizens who have attained the prescribed age without discrimination.

Teacher's Note:
a) Universal adult suffrage or franchise is a cornerstone of democracy.
b) Keep the answer concise as per instructions.

SECTION B - 32 MARKS

Question 2. Enumerate any two methods for amending the Indian Constitution. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Amendment by Special Majority of Parliament: Provisions relating to Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles can be amended by a majority of the total membership of each House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
2. Amendment by Special Majority of Parliament and Ratification by States: Provisions affecting the federal structure require a special majority in Parliament plus ratification by at least half of the state legislatures by simple majority.

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 368 provides for these two principal methods of constitutional amendment in India.
b) Students should clearly specify the voting thresholds (such as two-thirds present and voting and half of the states) to secure full marks.

Question 3. Briefly discuss the importance of Universal Adult Franchise. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Establishes Political Equality: It ensures that every adult citizen has an equal vote (one person, one vote, one value), eliminating discrimination based on wealth, gender, or social status.
2. Enhances Self-Esteem and Civic Consciousness: Participation in elections empowers marginalized sections of society, making them active stakeholders in the democratic process.
3. Ensures Responsive Government: Governments remain accountable to the entire electorate rather than a privileged few, fostering inclusive policy-making.
4. Strengthens National Unity: It binds diverse social groups together under a common political framework of equal rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) Universal adult franchise is foundational to representative democracy.
b) Presenting at least two to four well-explained points is necessary for a 4-mark question.

Question 4

(i) Mention the composition and method of election of the US Congress. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Composition of the US Congress: It is a bicameral legislature consisting of the Senate (Upper House) and the House of Representatives (Lower House). The Senate has 100 members (two from each of the 50 states). The House of Representatives has 435 voting members apportioned among states based on population.
2. Method of Election - Senate: Senators are directly elected by the voters of their respective states for a term of six years, with one-third retiring every two years.
3. Method of Election - House of Representatives: Representatives are directly elected by single-member districts for a two-year term.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly between the equal representation in the Senate and population-based representation in the House.
b) Mentioning terms of office and election methods adds precision.

OR

(ii) Examine any two special powers of Rajya Sabha. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Power under Article 249: The Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting to declare any subject in the State List as of national importance, enabling Parliament to legislate on it.
2. Power under Article 312: It can authorize Parliament to create one or more All-India Services common to both the Union and the States by passing a resolution supported by a two-thirds majority.
3. Exclusive control over Vice-Presidential removal: A resolution for the removal of the Vice-President of India must originate in the Rajya Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) These special powers underscore the federal utility of the Upper House in India.
b) Citing relevant constitutional articles (Article 249 and Article 312) fetches top marks.

Question 5

(i) Explain any two legislative powers of the President of India. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Power to Summon, Prorogue, and Dissolve: The President summons both Houses of Parliament, prorogues them, and can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister.
2. Ordinance-Making Power (Article 123): When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate ordinances having the same force as an act of Parliament, if satisfied that immediate action is necessary.
3. Nominating Members: The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha with special knowledge in literature, science, art, and social service.

Teacher's Note:
a) The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India.
b) Students must explain any two distinct powers thoroughly with examples or article references.

OR

(ii) Examine two veto powers of the President of United States of America. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Regular Veto: When a bill passed by Congress is presented to the US President, the President may veto it by returning it unsigned to the originating house with objections. Congress can override this veto by a two-thirds vote in both houses.
2. Pocket Veto: If Congress adjourns its session within ten days of submitting a bill to the President and the President takes no action, the bill automatically dies without a formal veto message, and Congress cannot override it during that adjournment.

Teacher's Note:
a) US presidential veto powers are potent checks on legislative supremacy.
b) Clearly differentiate the mechanism and impact of regular veto versus pocket veto.

Question 6. What type of cases are covered under the Original Jurisdiction of Indian Supreme Court? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Disputes between the Centre and one or more States.
2. Disputes between the Centre and any State(s) on one side and one or more States on the other.
3. Disputes between two or more States involving any question on which the legal right depends.
4. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 32, where individuals can directly approach the Supreme Court.

Teacher's Note:
a) Original jurisdiction means the power to hear a case in the first instance rather than on appeal.
b) Emphasize that inter-governmental federal disputes form the core of the Supreme Court's original and exclusive jurisdiction under Article 131.

Question 7. Every Preamble contains certain key ideals. Elaborate on any two ideals enshrined in the Preamble of India. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Justice: The Preamble secures to all citizens social, economic, and political justice. Social justice means absence of discrimination based on caste, creed, or gender; economic justice implies equitable distribution of wealth and elimination of glaring inequalities; political justice guarantees equal political rights and access to political offices.
2. Liberty: It secures liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. These freedoms are essential for the holistic development of an individual, subject to public order, morality, and integrity of the nation.
3. Equality and Fraternity: (Alternative ideals) Equality ensures civic, social, and economic equality of status and opportunity; fraternity fosters a sense of brotherhood and national integration.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Preamble outlines the socio-political philosophy of the Indian Republic.
b) Elaborating on any two ideals with their sub-components (such as social, economic, and political justice) is vital.

Question 8. Explain the significance of the Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution by giving any two examples. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Significance: Added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992), the Eleventh Schedule specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats, containing 29 functional items aimed at promoting grassroots democracy, rural development, and decentralization of power.
Examples of subjects:
1. Agriculture and agricultural extension.
2. Public health and sanitation, hospitals, primary health centers, and dispensaries.
3. Rural housing and drinking water supply.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Eleventh Schedule operationalizes local self-government in rural India.
b) Students must explain the general significance and provide at least two accurate functional items listed in the schedule.

Question 9. Examine the 'Sons of the Soil Principle' with the help of any two examples. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Meaning: The 'Sons of the Soil' theory is a regionalist sentiment asserting that the native inhabitants of a state have a preferential right to employment, land, political power, and economic opportunities over outsiders or migrants.
Examples:
1. Demand for job reservations for locals in private and public sectors in states like Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
2. Anti-migrant agitations in Assam (Assam Movement) demanding protection of indigenous demographic and cultural identity against outsiders.

Teacher's Note:
a) This principle highlights tensions between regional identity and national integration in a federal democracy.
b) Providing clear contextual examples is crucial for securing full marks.

SECTION C - 32 MARKS

Question 10. United Kingdom is a unitary state. Justify the statement by explaining any four features of a unitary state. [8 Marks]

Answer:
The United Kingdom exemplifies a classic unitary state where all governmental authority is centralized in the national parliament at Westminster. Four key features justify this status:
1. Concentration of Powers: Unlike a federation where powers are constitutionally divided between center and states, in the UK, all powers are vested in the central government. Any regional administrative units (like Scotland, Wales, or Northern Ireland) exercise delegated powers derived from Parliament and can be altered or abolished by it.
2. Single and Flexible Constitution: The UK has an uncodified constitution that can be amended by Parliament through ordinary legislation by a simple majority, reflecting the absolute supremacy of Parliament.
3. Single Citizenship: Citizens in the UK owe allegiance to a single central authority and possess uniform citizenship rights across the entire realm, unlike federal states with dual citizenship.
4. Uniformity of Laws and Administration: Laws enacted by Parliament apply uniformly across the country, and administrative machinery is controlled by central departments, ensuring administrative consistency.

Teacher's Note:
a) A unitary state contrasts sharply with a federal state on dimensions of power distribution and constitutional supremacy.
b) Explaining four distinct features with direct reference to the UK political system ensures full marks.

Question 11. Compare and contrast the two houses of the Indian Union Parliament. [8 Marks]

Answer:
The Parliament of India is bicameral, comprising the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
Similarities / Comparison:
1. Legislative Powers: Both houses play an active role in passing ordinary bills, constitutional amendment bills, and financial oversight.
2. Executive Control: Members of both houses question ministers and hold the executive accountable through debates, motions, and questions.
Differences / Contrast:
1. Composition: Lok Sabha is directly elected by citizens based on universal adult suffrage with a maximum strength of 550. Rajya Sabha is an indirectly elected body representing states, with a maximum strength of 250 members.
2. Tenure and Permanence: Lok Sabha is a temporary body with a normal five-year term, subject to dissolution. Rajya Sabha is a permanent House not subject to dissolution, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.
3. Financial Powers: Money bills can originate only in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has restricted financial powers and can delay a money bill for a maximum of 14 days.
4. Executive Accountability: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha; a no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Comparison requires pointing out shared functions, while contrasting requires highlighting structural and functional differences.
b) Categorizing points under composition, tenure, financial powers, and executive control provides a structured answer.

Question 12

(i) Enumerate the composition and any four functions of the Zila Parishad. [8 Marks]

Answer:
Composition of Zila Parishad:
1. Elected members from territorial constituencies in the district.
2. Chairpersons of all Panchayat Samitis within the district as ex-officio members.
3. Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) representing the district.
4. Reserved seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women in accordance with constitutional mandates.
Functions of Zila Parishad (Any four):
1. Planning and Development: Preparing district development plans and coordinating developmental schemes across Panchayat Samitis.
2. Agriculture and Irrigation: Promoting agricultural development, establishing seed farms, and maintaining minor irrigation projects.
3. Health and Sanitation: Establishing and maintaining primary health centers, hospitals, dispensaries, and sanitation drives.
4. Education: Setting up, supervising, and managing primary and secondary schools and adult literacy programs in rural areas.
5. Public Works: Construction and maintenance of rural roads, bridges, and community buildings.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Zila Parishad is the apex tier of the three-tier Panchayati Raj system at the district level.
b) Students must clearly separate composition details from functional responsibilities for clarity and maximum marks.

OR

(ii) Discuss any four measures to strengthen the Indian Democracy. [8 Marks]

Answer:
1. Eradication of Corruption: Implementing stringent anti-corruption laws, fast-track courts for politicians facing criminal charges, and ensuring transparency in political funding will restore public trust in democratic institutions.
2. Electoral Reforms: Curbing the influence of money and muscle power, implementing state funding of elections, and enforcing internal party democracy will make electoral competition fairer.
3. Strengthening Local Self-Government: Empowering Panchayats and Municipalities with adequate financial resources, administrative autonomy, and genuine decentralization will deepen grassroots democracy.
4. Promoting Citizen Education and Media Independence: Fostering political awareness, informed civic participation, and an independent, unbiased media will create an alert and responsible electorate.
5. Ensuring Social and Economic Equality: Bridging the wealth gap and eliminating caste, communal, and gender discrimination are essential preconditions for a vibrant, inclusive democracy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Strengthening democracy requires institutional, legal, and socio-economic interventions.
b) Providing four comprehensive points with clear headings and elaborations is required for an 8-mark essay-type question.

Question 13

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Sahil is a driver in a company in Bhilai. He falls ill due to COVID-19 and is terminated from the job. As a result, Sahil's son who is a minor takes up a job in a coal mine to provide financial support to the family.

(i) Identify the Fundamental Right violated in the above case. Which Part of the Constitution contains Fundamental Rights? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Fundamental Right violated is the Prohibition of Child Labour (Right against Exploitation, Article 24).
2. Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III of the Constitution of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Child employment in hazardous industries like coal mines violates Article 24.
b) Both parts of the question (identifying the right and the constitutional part) must be answered accurately.

(ii) Explain in detail the provisions of the Fundamental Right that has been violated in the case given above. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous activities.
2. It aims to protect the health, safety, and well-being of children, ensuring they are not forced into labor due to economic distress.
3. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act provides strict legal penalties and penal actions for violations.
4. This right is absolute and non-negotiable under any circumstances, safeguarding childhood as a fundamental human right.

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 24 specifically targets hazardous employment of children.
b) Detail the age limit (below 14 years) and prohibited workplaces (mines, factories) to secure full credit.

(iii) Which Fundamental Right restores the Right violated in the above case? Explain briefly. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) restores the violated right.
2. It empowers citizens to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement and protection of their Fundamental Rights through writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, or Certiorari.

Teacher's Note:
a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
b) Mentioning the article number and its remedial nature is essential.