ISC Class 12 Geography Sample Paper 2027 with Solutions

SECTION A - 14 MARKS

Question 1

A. Mark and label the correct option on the outline map provided. [1 Mark]
(i) The plateau that lies to the north of Vindhya Mountain is:
(a) Malwa
(b) Deccan
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Chotanagpur

Answer: (a) Malwa

The Malwa Plateau is bound by the Vindhya Range in the south and the Aravali Range in the west.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure students locate the plateau regions carefully on the outline map of India with clear labels.
b) Do not confuse the Malwa plateau with the Deccan plateau which lies south of the Vindhyas.

(ii) The peninsula that projects into the Arabian sea bounded by Gulf of Kachchh in the north-west and Gulf of Khambhat to the east is: [1 Mark]
(a) Deccan
(b) Kachchh
(c) Kathiawar
(d) Kanyakumari

Answer: (c) Kathiawar

Kathiawar peninsula is situated in Gujarat, bordered by the Arabian Sea.

Teacher's Note:
a) Know the exact boundaries and locations of coastal peninsulas in western India.
b) Pay close attention to distinguishing between Kachchh (the northern salt marsh region) and Kathiawar.

(iii) A large brackish waterbody on the Coromandel coast is: [1 Mark]
(a) Pulicat
(b) Wular
(c) Chilika
(d) Sambar

Answer: (a) Pulicat

Pulicat Lake is a brackish water lagoon located on the Coromandel Coast along the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pulicat is on the eastern (Coromandel) coast, whereas Chilika is further north in Odisha and Sambar is an inland lake in Rajasthan.
b) Students must memorise major water bodies and their exact geographical locations.

(iv) The coastal plains where the port of Kochi is located: [1 Mark]
(a) Konkan
(b) Kanara
(c) Malabar
(d) Northern Circars

Answer: (c) Malabar

Kochi, known as the Queen of the Arabian Sea, is situated on the Malabar coast in Kerala.

Teacher's Note:
a) The western coastal plain of India is divided into Konkan, Kanara, and Malabar from north to south.
b) Remember that Kerala's coast is specifically termed the Malabar coast.

B. Identify the correct option and label it on the outline map provided. [1 Mark]
(i) The tributary of river Indus with the longest length marked P is:
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelum
(d) Chenab

Answer: (b) Sutlej

Sutlej is the longest among the five tributaries of the Indus river system in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus by volume, but the Sutlej is the longest in terms of total length among the Punjab rivers.
b) Accurately mark river courses and reference points on the map.

(ii) The nuclear power plant located along the banks of river Ganga marked Q: [1 Mark]
(a) Kaiga
(b) Narora
(c) Tarapur
(d) Rawatbhata

Answer: (b) Narora

Narora Atomic Power Station is located in Bulandshahr district of Uttar Pradesh on the banks of the Ganga river.

Teacher's Note:
a) Narora is situated in northern India along the Ganga, while Kaiga is in Karnataka and Tarapur is in Maharashtra.
b) Map-based identification requires correct association of key infrastructure with river systems.

(iii) The state with the highest index of concentration of population marked R: [1 Mark]
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (b) West Bengal

West Bengal records the highest population density (concentration of population) among major states in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Do not confuse total population (highest in Uttar Pradesh) with population density/concentration (highest in Bihar or West Bengal depending on the latest census metrics, with West Bengal leading in density terms among major states).
b) Read population questions carefully to distinguish between absolute numbers and density.

(iv) The port built to decongest the oldest port in eastern India marked S: [1 Mark]
(a) Kochi
(b) Haldia
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai

Answer: (b) Haldia

Haldia port was developed downstream of Kolkata port to handle larger vessels and reduce congestion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Kolkata port is a riverine port on the Hooghly river; Haldia acts as its subsidiary port.
b) Ensure clarity regarding subsidiary and satellite ports on both coasts.

Question 2

(i) Given below are two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option. [1 Mark]
Assertion: India aims to increase the generation of non-conventional energy by 2030.
Reason: Conventional resources cause pollution and are non-renewable.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

India's push toward renewable energy is primarily driven by the need to replace polluting and exhaustible conventional resources.

Teacher's Note:
a) Assertion-reason questions test conceptual clarity and cause-effect relationships.
b) Check if the reason directly validates the motive behind the national policy mentioned in the assertion.

(ii) Given below are two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option. [1 Mark]
Assertion: Nuclear energy is considered important for India in 2026.
Reason: It does not cause air pollution and reduces coal use.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Answer: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.

Nuclear power is a clean energy source that helps cut down greenhouse gas emissions and decreases dependence on coal.

Teacher's Note:
a) Nuclear energy provides base load power with zero direct carbon emissions.
b) Ensure students recognise the environmental benefits highlighted in energy policy questions.

(iii) The state of Rajasthan is best suited for solar energy development. Choose the correct reasons that justify the above statement. [1 Mark]
(P) High rainfall
(Q) High solar insolation
(R) Availability of coal
(S) Presence of large open space
(a) Only (P) and (R)
(b) Only (Q) and (S)
(c) Only (R) and (S)
(d) Only (P) and (S)

Answer: (b) Only (Q) and (S)

Rajasthan experiences high solar insolation due to clear skies and arid conditions, along with vast tracts of open uncultivated land suitable for solar parks.

Teacher's Note:
a) Solar energy requires abundant sunlight and large areas of land, both of which are plentiful in the Thar desert region.
b) Rainfall and coal availability are irrelevant or counterproductive for solar energy potential.

(iv) Examine the role of iron and steel industry in the economic development of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Iron and steel industry is the backbone of industrial and infrastructural development on which all other industries like automobiles, railways, construction, and defence depend. It generates employment and leads to regional development with rapid urbanisation growth.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the foundational nature of the metallurgical industry in supporting downstream manufacturing.
b) Mention how it serves as a multi-sector catalyst for economic expansion.

(v) How does the eroded landscape of Malwa plateau pose a challenge to farming? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Continuous erosion by rivers and rainfall has created deep gullies and ravines, washing away the top fertile soil layer, reducing crop yields, and making cultivation and the use of farm machinery extremely difficult.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on how ravines and uneven topography hinder mechanised agriculture.
b) Emphasise topsoil loss and poor moisture retention.

(vi) What is the role of raw material in determining the location of industries in India? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Raw materials determine industrial location by minimising transportation costs, especially for weight-losing and heavy industries like iron and steel which are located near raw material sources.

Teacher's Note:
a) Weight-losing raw materials exert a strong pull on manufacturing plant locations.
b) Proximity to raw materials ensures cost-effective production chains.

SECTION B - 28 MARKS

Question 3 [4 Marks]
Assess how the formation of doabs has transformed Punjab from a subsistence landscape to a commercialised agrarian economy.

Answer:
1. Doabs comprise fertile alluvial soil deposited by rivers that are replenished annually by floods, making the land exceptionally fertile.
2. The establishment of extensive canal networks across doabs provided a perennial source of irrigation, ending complete reliance on erratic rainfall.
3. Dry and barren patches were converted into green, productive agricultural fields.
4. This security of water and soil fertility facilitated a major shift from subsistence farming to commercial cultivation of high-yield crops like wheat and rice.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the geographic definition of a doab (land between two rivers) and its natural fertility.
b) Connect irrigation development directly to the Green Revolution and commercial agriculture.

Question 4 [4 Marks]
(i) Study the line graph below and answer the question that follows.
[Figure: Line graph showing Number of Females per 1,000 Males in India from 2015 to 2024. The curve starts at 898 in 2015, rises sharply to a peak of 933 in 2020, and then declines to 920 in 2024.]
What trend does the graph reveal about the sex ratio of the population in India? Discuss three factors that have led to this sex ratio.

Answer:
The graph reveals that the number of females born per 1,000 males in India peaked in 2020 at 933 and declined sharply thereafter to 920 by 2024.
Factors responsible:
1. Son meta-preference leads to the neglect of female children and the prevalence of illegal sex determination tests resulting in female foeticide.
2. Deep-rooted patriarchal mindset in society devalues women and views daughters as financial or social burdens.
3. High maternal mortality rates during childbirth and continued neglect of female health, nutrition, and education across their reproductive life stages.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students must accurately read data values and temporal trends from the graph before explaining socio-demographic causes.
b) Highlight cultural son preference as a primary driver of skewed sex ratios.

OR

(ii) Study the given part of the map of India that points certain north-eastern states, and answer the question that follows.
[Figure: Outline map of north-eastern states of India highlighting Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, and Tripura with point locations.]
What is the unique demographic trend observable in these states? Discuss three factors largely responsible for such trend.

Answer:
A low population growth or out-migration trend is observable in certain remote north-eastern states.
Factors responsible:
1. Large-scale out-migration of youth to other metropolitan states in search of better education, employment, and higher living standards.
2. Rugged topography, dense vegetation, and harsh terrain that restrict internal mobility and industrial development.
3. Poor infrastructural development and limited economic opportunities within the region driving outward movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the geographical and economic challenges unique to hilly north-eastern states.
b) Emphasise how terrain and lack of industries spur migration toward mainland urban centres.

Question 5

(i) Study the temperature and rainfall data given below of Mumbai and Chennai and answer the following questions:

(T = Temperature in degree Celsius, R = Rainfall in centimetres)

(a) What similarities do you observe in the temperature patterns of both the cities? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Both cities experience moderate, maritime, or equable temperature conditions throughout the year due to coastal proximity.
2. The annual range of temperature is low for both locations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasise the moderating influence of the sea on coastal stations.
b) Check that students compare temperature ranges rather than absolute monthly values alone.

(b) Based on the above data, differentiate between the rainfall regimes of Chennai and Mumbai. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mumbai receives heavy rainfall during the south-west monsoon season from June to September, peaking in July.
2. Chennai receives most of its annual rainfall during the north-east monsoon season from October to December, peaking in November.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly contrast the summer monsoon regime of the west coast with the retreating/winter monsoon regime of the Coromandel coast.
b) Use the data table to back up peak rainfall months.

OR

(ii) Study the map of India which shows areas of annual rainfall variability and answer the given question. [4 Marks]
[Figure: Outline map of India indicating annual rainfall variability zones with legends: More than 60 percent, 30 to 60 percent, 15 to 30 percent, and less than 15 percent.]
Comment on the paradox of rainfall distribution in India.

Answer:
1. Rainfall distribution in India is characterised by spatial and temporal contradiction where certain regions experience extreme flood-inducing rainfall while others remain arid.
2. Agriculture across the country remains heavily dependent on an erratic and variable monsoon, leading to simultaneous floods in one region and droughts in another.
3. High variability of rainfall is concentrated in drought-prone north-western regions, whereas north-eastern regions experience low rainfall variability due to topographic relief.
4. This climatic contradiction is primarily caused by complex topography, varying distance from the sea, and differing pressure systems.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain how spatial extremes (Cherrapunji versus Thar desert) highlight the Indian rainfall paradox.
b) Link variability percentages directly to water scarcity and agricultural vulnerability.

Question 6 [4 Marks]
How does the growth of tourism industry contribute to employment generation and regional economic development in India?

Answer:
1. Tourism creates diverse job opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers across urban and rural sectors such as hospitality, transport, and tour guiding.
2. It stimulates local handicrafts and cottage industries, indirectly supporting indigenous artisans.
3. Development of infrastructure like roads, communication networks, and public amenities enhances local living standards and fosters regional economic growth.
4. It promotes remote and backward regions by transforming them into popular tourist destinations, thereby reducing regional economic disparities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect tourism to multiplier effects in employment and infrastructure.
b) Mention artisanal and service sector linkages.

Question 7 [4 Marks]
'Telangana followed by Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan leads in community-based water conservation projects under the Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari (JSJB) 1.0 initiative by the Government of India.'
(Source: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/telangana)
Assess the reasons for the above-mentioned states leading in water conservation projects.

Answer:
1. These states have historically experienced severe droughts and erratic rainfall patterns, compelling them to adopt conscious conservation measures.
2. They successfully revived traditional water harvesting structures because heavy reliance on depleting groundwater or unreliable monsoons was unsustainable.
3. Active local mass movements in building check dams and reservoirs, coupled with active state and NGO support, mitigated water scarcity.
4. Strong administrative intervention, systematic planning, and efficient execution turned these states into pioneers of community water management.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasise community participation (Jan Bhagidari) and traditional systems revival.
b) Relate historical drought vulnerability to proactive policy adoption.

Question 8

(i) Examine the paradox of the River Brahmaputra as an agent of massive destruction and a vital lifeline for Assam's economy and ecology. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Lifeline aspects:
1. Annual monsoon floods deposit rich alluvial silt that makes the Brahmaputra valley exceptionally fertile for growing rice and jute.
2. The river provides abundant water for irrigation and serves as a major inland waterway supporting local biodiversity and commerce.
Destructive aspects:
3. High discharge volume during monsoons causes severe bank erosion and catastrophic floods that submerge settlements, destroy crops, and displace populations.
4. These recurring disasters push vulnerable communities into cyclical poverty.

Teacher's Note:
a) Address both the economic benefits (alluvial fertility, navigation) and environmental hazards (flooding, bank erosion).
b) Use the term 'duality' or 'paradox' as specified in the prompt.

OR

(ii) The Himalayan rivers are still youthful, while the Peninsular rivers have attained maturity. Examine the given statement. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Himalayan rivers originate in young fold mountains that are still rising, giving rivers steep gradients and immense erosive power to carve deep gorges and V-shaped valleys.
2. Himalayan rivers exhibit vigorous flow, shifting courses, and intense headward erosion.
3. Peninsular rivers flow across a stable and geologically ancient plateau with gentle slopes and broad, shallow valleys.
4. Having achieved a graded profile and mature stage, Peninsular rivers have fixed courses and lack major erosive activity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast the tectonic setting and valley profiles of northern and southern river systems.
b) Explain geological youth versus maturity in terms of gradient and valley form.

Question 9

(i) The land-use pattern of Nagaland shows the dominance of forest while that of Uttar Pradesh shows agriculture. What according to you can be the reason for such a difference in the two states? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Nagaland features a rugged, mountainous topography and heavy rainfall, which naturally supports dense forest cover and limits large-scale settled farming.
2. Uttar Pradesh is characterised by flat, fertile alluvial plains watered by perennial Himalayan rivers, which highly favour extensive agriculture.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast terrain and soil types between hill states and northern plains.
b) Link relief and climate directly to primary land-use categories.

(ii) If you were an Officer in the State Forest Department, what steps would you have taken to increase the forest cover in the state? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Launch massive state-wide afforestation and reafforestation drives, incorporating social forestry and agroforestry practices.
2. Establish green belts, urban city forests, and enforce strict monitoring using drones and CCTV to prevent illegal tree felling.

Teacher's Note:
a) Formulate actionable administrative measures suited for forest management.
b) Include both community engagement (social forestry) and regulatory enforcement.

SECTION C - 28 MARKS

Question 10

(i) The settlement shown in the given image is growing at an accelerated rate and has turned to be a major problem of urbanisation in today's India. Discuss four problems associated with it. [4 Marks]
[Figure: Photograph showing a densely packed urban slum settlement with informal housing and congested alleys.]

Answer:
1. Overcrowding and congested living conditions lead to unhygienic environments prone to disease outbreaks.
2. Severe lack of basic amenities such as safe drinking water, proper sanitation, and electricity.
3. Construction using cheap, sub-standard materials makes these settlements highly vulnerable to fires and structural collapse.
4. High incidence of poverty, unemployment, and elevated rates of crime and substance abuse.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the settlement type as a slum from the visual cue.
b) Discuss socio-economic, health, and infrastructural challenges systematically.

(ii) What migration pattern is observed in the advanced stage of migration? Why? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Urban-to-urban migration is observed in the advanced stage of migration.
2. Reasons include economic development concentrating in metropolitan urban centres, prompting people to move between cities for superior career opportunities.
3. Availability of advanced facilities in transport, higher education, healthcare, and lifestyle amenities drives this inter-city movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Specify the migration stream (urban to urban) clearly.
b) Explain the push and pull factors operating at advanced stages of urbanisation.

OR

(iii) Study the two types of settlements shown in the images below and answer the question that follows. [4 Marks]
[Figure: Two images showing settlement A with high-rise skyscrapers and urban density, and settlement B with rural houses, open fields, and low-density village layout.]
Differentiate between the two settlements marked 'A' and 'B' based on occupation and population density.

Answer:
1. Occupation: In rural settlement (B), people are primarily engaged in primary activities such as agriculture, forestry, and fishing, whereas in urban settlement (A), people are engaged in secondary and tertiary activities like manufacturing, trade, and services.
2. Population density: Rural settlements (B) have low population density of less than 400 persons per square kilometre, whereas urban settlements (A) have high population density exceeding 400 persons per square kilometre.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly contrast rural and urban parameters as depicted in standard geographical classifications.
b) Structure the differentiation point-by-point covering occupation and density.

(iv) Suggest three reasons for the difference in the rate of out-migration in various states of India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Regional economic disparities mean states with low industrial bases (like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar) witness high out-migration compared to industrialised states.
2. Agricultural vulnerability in rain-fed regions pushes rural workers to migrate seasonally or permanently in search of wage employment.
3. Inadequate educational, healthcare, and infrastructural facilities in backward states compel people to relocate to urban centres offering superior provisions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on push factors operating across differently developed Indian states.
b) Link industrial backwardness and agrarian distress directly to migration rates.

Question 11

(i) (a) Outline two major challenges faced by Indian transport. Propose two strategies to overcome them. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Challenges:
1. Severe traffic congestion in metropolitan cities due to rapid vehicle growth exceeding road capacity.
2. Poor maintenance of transport infrastructure leading to frequent accidents, delays, and environmental pollution.
Strategies:
3. Investing heavily in expanding public transport networks, metro rail systems, and modern highways.
4. Implementing intelligent, satellite-based traffic management systems and enforcing rigorous vehicle emission standards.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pair each transport challenge with a practical engineering or policy solution.
b) Highlight urban congestion and maintenance as primary bottlenecks.

(b) Evaluate the role of Indian transport network in promoting regional development. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Transport acts as a vital link connecting remote rural regions with urban markets, ensuring the smooth flow of raw materials and finished goods.
2. It enables optimum resource utilisation and creates employment opportunities in hinterland areas.
3. It integrates isolated backward regions into the national economy, promoting tourism and reducing regional disparities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasise integration of rural-urban economic corridors.
b) Discuss how infrastructure reduction of distance costs spurs regional parity.

OR

(ii) (a) How do road and railways complement each other in a modern economy? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Roads provide door-to-door connectivity, collecting goods and passengers from farms and homes to feed into railway stations.
2. Railways efficiently transport bulky goods and heavy passenger loads over long distances across major urban centres, while roads handle local distribution.
3. Both networks function interdependently to build a seamless multi-modal transportation network essential for industrial and agricultural trade.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the feeder role of roads and the trunk-haul capacity of railways.
b) Explain synergy in freight and passenger movement.

(b) Assess the role of technological innovations in transport in sustainable growth of urban areas in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Introduction of metro rail systems, electric vehicles, and high-speed transit improves fuel efficiency and reduces carbon emissions.
2. Smart traffic management using sensors and CCTV cameras regulates traffic flow and minimises idling delays at signals.
3. However, high production costs, expensive infrastructure upgrades, and massive electricity demands for electric mobility pose implementation hurdles.

Teacher's Note:
a) Balance the ecological and efficiency benefits of green transport technology with economic limitations.
b) Mention smart city applications in urban transit.

Question 12

(i) Social forestry is often described as forestry of the people, for the people and by the people. Do you agree? Justify. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Yes, social forestry involves managing and planting trees on common village lands and community spaces rather than government reserve forests.
2. It is initiated and maintained collectively by the local community members who plant, water, and protect the trees.
3. The direct benefits accrue entirely to the local populace in the form of firewood, small timber, and fodder, directly supporting rural livelihoods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the fundamental philosophy of community-managed social forestry.
b) Contrast social forestry with traditional reserved forest management.

(ii) Government schemes like Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) to promote afforestation and regeneration activities are a way of compensating for forest land diverted to non-forest uses. Comment on the significance of such schemes for our country. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rapid developmental projects require forest land diversion; CAMPA ensures ecological balance by mandating compensatory afforestation (typically planting on degraded land for diverted tracts).
2. Funds collected are utilised for habitat restoration, wildlife protection, and forest fire control.
3. However, man-made plantations often lack the biodiversity of natural forests, and administrative challenges in fund utilisation limit their effectiveness.

Teacher's Note:
a) Evaluate both the ecological necessity and practical limitations of compensatory afforestation funds.
b) Emphasise biodiversity replacement challenges.

Question 13

(i) Examine the reasons for the above-mentioned sector gaining importance in India in present times. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Growing population and rising food security demands require diversification toward high-value agricultural sectors like horticulture.
2. Increasing health awareness has boosted domestic and international demand for nutrient-rich fruits, vegetables, spices, and medicinal plants.
3. Organic and farm-based horticultural produce yields higher financial returns for farmers with small landholdings compared to traditional cereal crops.
4. India's diverse agro-climatic conditions enable year-round cultivation of various tropical and subtropical crops.
5. Horticultural exports generate substantial foreign exchange revenue and create extensive employment opportunities across the rural economy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect horticultural expansion to nutritional shifts, export demand, and small farmer economics.
b) Mention India's climatic advantage in supporting diverse crop types.

(ii) Name two states of India that engage in large scale production of flowers. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Karnataka (or West Bengal / Madhya Pradesh)

Teacher's Note:
a) Accept any two major floriculture-producing states listed in official agricultural records.
b) Note that southern states like Tamil Nadu and Karnataka lead in commercial floriculture.