ISC Class 12 Geography Sample Paper 2024 with Solutions

SECTION A - 14 MARKS

Question 1

A. [3 Marks]
(i) On the given outline Map of India, mark and label the following:
(a) The mountain Range that starts from Delhi and ends in Gujarat.
(b) The northern part of the Eastern Coastal Plains of India.
(c) The strait between India and Sri Lanka.

Answer:

[Figure: Outline political map of India indicating locations to be marked by students]

Teacher's Note:
a) Students must practice map marking regularly to locate important physiographic divisions accurately.
b) A common mistake is confusing the Palk Strait with the Gulf of Mannar; ensure precise labelling.

(ii) Refer to the given outline Map of India and identify the following: [3 Marks]
(a) The north terminal of the North-South Corridor marked D is __________.
(b) The Sorrow of Bihar marked E is ______________.
(c) The highest wheat producing state in India marked is __________.

Answer:
(a) Srinagar
(b) Kosi River
(c) Uttar Pradesh

Teacher's Note:
a) Geographical identifiers on maps test both locational awareness and static regional knowledge.
b) Ensure spellings of geographical names like Srinagar and Kosi are written correctly to avoid losing marks.

B. Refer to the given outline map of India, identify the correct option and write it in the answer booklet provided.

(i) The latitude of India marked A is: [1 Mark]
(a) 68°7′E to 97°25′E
(b) 82º30É
(c) 68°7′E to 96°25′E
(d) 23º30’N

Answer: (d) 23º30’N

The Tropic of Cancer (23 degrees 30 minutes N) passes through the middle of India, marked as A on the map.

Teacher's Note:
a) Options (a) and (c) represent longitudinal extents, while (b) represents the Standard Meridian of India.
b) Students must carefully distinguish between latitudinal and longitudinal values of India's extent.

(ii) The port marked B is: [1 Mark]
(a) Kochi
(b) Haldia
(c) Kolkata
(d) Paradwip

Answer: (b) Haldia

Haldia is situated downstream from Kolkata on the Hooghly River.

Teacher's Note:
a) Haldia port was developed to relieve the growing traffic congestion at Kolkata port.
b) Do not confuse Haldia with Paradwip, which lies further south along the Odisha coast.

(iii) The iron and steel plant marked by is: [1 Mark]
(a) Bhilai
(b) Bhadravati
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer: (a) Bhilai

Bhilai Steel Plant is located in the Durg district of Chhattisgarh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bhilai was established with Soviet collaboration during India's Second Five Year Plan.
b) Spatial identification of major industrial hubs on outline maps is a frequently tested topic.

(iv) The southernmost point of India marked C is: [1 Mark]
(a) Port Blair
(b) Indira Col
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Cape Comorin

Answer: (d) Cape Comorin

Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari) is the southernmost point of the Indian mainland.

Teacher's Note:
a) Indira Point is the southernmost point of the entire country (in Andaman and Nicobar Islands), whereas Cape Comorin is the southernmost tip of the mainland.
b) Read the question carefully to distinguish between mainland and total territory extents.

Question 2

(i) The country that India does NOT share a land border with is: [1 Mark]
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Afghanistan

Answer: (c) Sri Lanka

Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait and does not share a land boundary.

Teacher's Note:
a) India shares land borders with Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, and Bangladesh.
b) Maritime boundaries should not be confused with land frontiers.

(ii) Assertion : There are three major physical divisions in India.
Reason : There is a variation in geological structure of the Indian region. [1 Mark]
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

Answer: (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.

India has six major physical divisions (Northern Mountains, Northern Plains, Peninsular Plateau, Indian Desert, Coastal Plains, and Islands), making the assertion false, while the reason regarding varied geological structures is true.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always verify basic textbook facts before evaluating assertion-reason pairs.
b) India's diverse physiography is indeed a direct consequence of its complex geological history.

(iii) According to the latest census, the state with the lowest density of population in India is _________________. [1 Mark]

Answer: Arunachal Pradesh

Teacher's Note:
a) Arunachal Pradesh recorded the lowest population density of 17 persons per square kilometre as per the 2011 Census.
b) Students must remember key demographic statistics from census data.

(iv) Give a reason for the following.
The Chambal River valley is primarily characterised as a ravine or a badland. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Chambal River valley is characterised by extensive gully erosion caused by intense surface run-off over soft alluvial soil, rendering the land unfit for cultivation and forming badlands.

Teacher's Note:
a) Soil erosion by running water creates intricate networks of ravines locally known as khad.
b) Mentioning gully erosion and soft alluvial soil is essential for full credit.

SECTION B - 28 MARKS

Question 3

(i) Briefly discuss any two methods to conserve fish as a resource. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Regulated fishing: Imposing bans on fishing during the breeding season to allow fish populations to replenish.
2. Mesh size regulation: Using nets with prescribed legal mesh sizes so that juvenile and small fish escape capture.

Teacher's Note:
a) Overfishing threatens aquatic biodiversity, making sustainable management vital.
b) Give two clear management practices for full marks.

(ii) Mention any two requirements of a planning region that Haldia port and its hinterland possess. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Geographic unity and resource accessibility to facilitate trade and industrial growth.
2. Adequate transport network linking the port directly to a productive mineral and agricultural hinterland.

Teacher's Note:
a) A planning region requires nodal connectivity and economic interdependence between the core port and its tributary area.
b) Keep answers focused on regional planning criteria.

Question 4

(i) The total forest area of India is 24.39%. Suggest any two methods to increase the 'area under forest' in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Afforestation and massive tree-planting campaigns (such as Social Forestry and Van Mahotsav) on degraded and waste lands.
2. Strict legal enforcement against illegal felling, forest fires, and encroachment on forest lands.

Teacher's Note:
a) Expanding green cover is crucial for ecological balance and combating climate change.
b) Mention both active plantation methods and protective legislative measures.

(ii) Briefly explain why the 'area sown more than once' is low in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dependence on erratic monsoon rainfall limits agricultural operations to a single season in many regions.
2. Inadequate irrigation facilities across vast parts of cultivable land prevent multiple cropping cycles.

Teacher's Note:
a) Multiple cropping depends heavily on reliable perennial irrigation systems.
b) Highlight monsoon dependence and lack of irrigation as the primary constraints.

Question 5

Thousands of villagers living along the Arvari River in Rajasthan have set up three thousand johads under Arvari Pani Sansad. They are able to grow two crops a year instead of cultivating one dry crop.

(i) Mention another such programme of water conservation which is in Andhra Pradesh. How is this programme beneficial? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Programme: Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) or construction of percolation tanks and check dams.
2. Benefit: It increases groundwater recharge, revives dried-up borewells, and ensures water availability for irrigation and domestic use during dry periods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Watershed management programmes empower local communities to manage water sustainably.
b) State both the name of the traditional or community water harvesting project and its tangible benefit.

(ii) Which modern method of irrigation for judicious use of water is most suitable for the state mentioned in the passage? Why? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Method: Drip irrigation / trickle irrigation.
2. Reason: Rajasthan experiences arid conditions with scarce water resources; drip irrigation delivers water directly to plant roots drop by drop, minimising evaporation and runoff losses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Drip irrigation achieves high water use efficiency compared to flood irrigation.
b) Connect the choice of method directly to the climatic and geographical conditions of Rajasthan.

Question 6

Observe any one of the images given below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) (a) Why is the energy generated by the above source considered important? [2 Marks]

[Figure: A wind farm showing multiple wind turbine generators installed in an open landscape]

Answer:
1. It is a clean, renewable, and pollution-free source of energy that helps reduce carbon emissions.
2. It reduces dependence on exhaustible fossil fuels and contributes to sustainable development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Wind energy harnesses natural air currents to generate electricity without depleting resources.
b) Emphasize environmental friendliness and inexhaustibility.

(b) Give any two differences between the thermal power and the energy source shown above. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Present differences clearly in a comparative tabular format or point-wise.
b) Focus on resource type and environmental impact.

OR

(ii) (a) Why is the metal shown above an important component in the electrical and electronic industry? [2 Marks]

[Figure: Raw mica sheets showing characteristic flaky and layered structure]

Answer:
1. Mica has excellent dielectric strength and insulating properties.
2. It can withstand high voltages and has a low power loss factor, making it indispensable for electrical appliances and electronics.

Teacher's Note:
a) The mineral shown is mica, known for its unique property of splitting into extremely thin, flexible, and heat-resistant sheets.
b) Mention insulating properties and heat resistance for full credit.

(b) What is the cause for the fall in demand for this metal in the world market? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Development of synthetic substitutes and alternative insulating materials in industrial applications.
2. Technological advancements leading to miniaturisation of electronic components requiring lesser quantities of natural mica.

Teacher's Note:
a) Synthetic alternatives have largely replaced natural mica in several high-tech industries.
b) State both synthetic substitution and technological miniaturisation.

Question 7 [4 Marks]

[Figure: Sketch map of India showing Kolkata, Mumbai, and Chennai connected by major transport corridors]

Roads and railways have connected the three ports in India as shown in the map given above.
How did this connectivity influence industrialisation in pre independent India?

Answer:
1. Facilitated export of raw materials: Railways and roads linked interior resource-rich regions directly to the ports of Kolkata, Mumbai, and Chennai for export to Britain.
2. Imported manufactured goods distribution: British manufactured goods were transported inland from these ports, stifling traditional Indian cottage industries.
3. Concentrated industrial growth: Early modern industries (like cotton textiles in Mumbai and jute in Kolkata) grew around these port hubs due to transport accessibility.
4. Colonial economic exploitation: The transport network was designed primarily to serve British colonial economic interests rather than integrated domestic industrial development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Transport infrastructure in colonial India served as an instrument of economic drain and raw material extraction.
b) Give four distinct points covering raw material outflow, import distribution, and port-based industrial concentration.

Question 8

(i) Briefly discuss each of the following problems associated with the Green Revolution

(a) Regional disparities in economic development [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The benefits of the Green Revolution were concentrated primarily in wheat and rice-growing states like Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh.
2. Eastern and central parts of India lagged behind due to lack of irrigation and capital, widening the economic divide between regions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Uneven adoption led to disparate regional growth rates.
b) Mention specific regions to substantiate the answer.

(b) Rise of unemployment in India [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Early phases of the Green Revolution encouraged mechanisation (tractors, harvesters), which displaced traditional agricultural labourers.
2. Small and marginal farmers could not afford modern inputs, leading to loss of land ownership and rural unemployment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mechanisation reduced human labour requirements in farm operations.
b) Explain how mechanisation and economic disparity caused displacement.

OR

(ii) Briefly discuss each of the following major challenges of rice production in India

(a) Economic condition of the farmers [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. A large majority of rice cultivators are small and marginal farmers with limited financial resources.
2. Inability to afford high-yielding variety seeds, chemical fertilisers, and modern irrigation equipment leads to low crop yields and perpetual debt.

Teacher's Note:
a) Poverty restricts investment in agricultural modernization.
b) Link financial constraints directly to productivity levels.

(b) Small and fragmented farms [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Continuous sub-division and fragmentation of agricultural land holdings result in uneconomic farm sizes.
2. Small holdings make efficient mechanisation, drainage management, and optimal use of inputs difficult.

Teacher's Note:
a) Land fragmentation is a structural bottleneck in Indian agriculture.
b) Explain how fragmented holdings hinder technological efficiency.

Question 9

(i) India's location at the head of Indian Ocean is significant.
State two points in support of this statement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Central strategic position: It establishes easy maritime communication routes connecting Europe and Africa in the west with East Asia and Australia in the east.
2. Trade advantage: It provides India with a vast coastline that promotes international maritime trade and dominance over Indian Ocean sea lanes.

Teacher's Note:
a) India's peninsular projection into the Indian Ocean acts as a natural bridge for international commerce.
b) State strategic connectivity and trade advantages clearly.

(ii) Explain the geological formation of Peninsular Plateau. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Peninsular Plateau is a tableland composed of ancient crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks.
2. It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwanaland supercontinent, making it one of the most stable landmasses of geological history.

Teacher's Note:
a) The plateau is formed from ancient shields dating back to the Archaean era.
b) Mention Gondwanaland drift and ancient crystalline rock structure.

SECTION C - 28 MARKS

Question 10

(i) Discuss the factors that influence temperature variations in different regions of India. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Latitudinal extent: The southern part of India is closer to the equator and experiences tropical conditions, while northern India lies in sub-tropical and temperate zones with colder winters.
2. Altitude: Temperature decreases with an increase in height; hence, hill stations in the Himalayas remain cool even during summer.
3. Distance from the sea: Coastal areas experience a moderating maritime climate with small temperature ranges, whereas interior regions experience extreme continental climate.
4. Winds and pressure systems: Surface winds like the monsoons and western disturbances alter seasonal temperatures across the subcontinent.

Teacher's Note:
a) India's diverse climate is shaped by multiple geographical controls.
b) Provide four distinct factors with brief explanations for full marks.

(ii) What factors have contributed to the growing demand for forest conservation in the country? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Deforestation and habitat loss: Rapid urbanisation, industrial expansion, and agricultural clearing have drastically reduced forest cover.
2. Climate change and environmental degradation: Increasing carbon emissions, erratic monsoons, and soil erosion make forest preservation vital for ecological balance.
3. Loss of biodiversity: Depletion of forests threatens endangered flora and fauna, driving public and legislative demand for wildlife and habitat conservation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Forests act as carbon sinks and support rich biodiversity.
b) State three well-reasoned factors driving conservation demands.

OR

(i) What are the ways in which the westerly disturbance affects the climate in India? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Winter rainfall: They bring much-needed winter rain (Mahawat) to north-western parts of India.
2. Agricultural boost: The precipitation is highly beneficial for the cultivation of rabi crops, particularly wheat.
3. Weather changes: They cause sudden cloudiness, drop in night temperatures, and snowfall in the higher Himalayan ranges.

Teacher's Note:
a) Westerly depressions originate over the Mediterranean Sea and travel eastward towards India during winter.
b) Mention winter rain, rabi crop benefit, and Himalayan snowfall.

(ii) Explain the Chipko movement and give the reasons for its success. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Explanation: The Chipko movement was a forest conservation movement in India that began in the 1970s in Uttarakhand, where villagers (particularly women) hugged trees to prevent them from being felled.
2. Grassroots participation: Active involvement of local communities, especially women who depended on forests for fuel, fodder, and water, ensured deep commitment.
3. Non-violent approach: The peaceful Gandhian method of resistance (hugging trees) drew widespread national and international sympathy.
4. Government policy shift: The movement successfully forced the government to ban commercial felling of trees in the Himalayan region for a designated period and raised ecological awareness.

Teacher's Note:
a) Chipko is a landmark milestone in community-led environmental protection.
b) Clearly describe both the nature of the movement and the specific reasons for its success.

Question 11

[Figure: Sketch map of India with landform A marked along the northern boundary of the country]

Study the sketch map given below and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify the landform A in the sketch map given above. Describe any two advantages of this landform's location and extent. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Identification: The Himalayas (Northern Mountains), marked as A.
2. Climatic barrier: They act as a physical barrier blocking freezing cold winds from Central Asia from entering the Indian subcontinent.
3. Monsoon retention: They intercept moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds, forcing them to shed rainfall across the Indian plains.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Himalayas play a foundational role in shaping India's climate and hydrology.
b) Identify the landform accurately and provide two distinct climatic or geographical advantages.

(ii) Name any two drainage systems of India influenced by the location of this landform A. How would the absence of this landform impact the drainage systems and water distribution in India? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Drainage systems: The Himalayan river systems (such as the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus river systems).
2. Absence impact - Perennial flow loss: Without the Himalayas, rivers would lose their perennial snow-fed source and become seasonal rain-fed streams.
3. Absence impact - Water scarcity: Perennial rivers provide continuous irrigation and water supply; their absence would turn northern India into an arid or semi-arid region.
4. Absence impact - Altered drainage pattern: Melting glaciers sustain summer flows; their absence would disrupt the entire river basin hydrology and aquatic ecosystems.

Teacher's Note:
a) Himalayan rivers are snow-fed and perennial, unlike peninsular rivers.
b) Name two drainage systems and explain the hydrological consequences of their absence.

Question 12

(i) The National Capital Region (NCR) in India is one of the largest and most populous urban agglomeration in the country. It includes the capital city of Delhi along with several surrounding urban areas, such as Gurugram, Noida, Ghaziabad, and Faridabad.
What is an urban agglomeration? How has rapid urbanisation increased the challenges faced by the above-mentioned urban agglomeration? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Definition: An urban agglomeration is an extended city or town area comprising a core city and its well-developed outgrowths or surrounding urban fringes functioning as a continuous economic unit.
2. Housing and slums: Rapid urbanisation has led to severe housing shortages, rising land prices, and the proliferation of slums and unauthorised colonies.
3. Infrastructure strain: It has caused acute traffic congestion, heavy air pollution, water scarcity, and overburdened waste management systems across the NCR.

Teacher's Note:
a) Urban agglomerations integrate central cities with surrounding satellite towns.
b) Provide the precise census definition and link urbanisation challenges to infrastructure and environmental stress.

(ii) Briefly discuss any two rural settlement types and any two of their characteristics. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Clustered (Nucleated) Settlements: Houses are closely built around a central focal point.
- Characteristic: Commonly found in fertile alluvial plains where agriculture supports dense living; houses are arranged along streets or village squares.
2. Dispersed (Isolated) Settlements: Houses are widely spaced and separated by fields or hills.
- Characteristic: Typically found in hilly terrain, deserts, or forested regions where livelihoods like grazing or isolated farming dominate.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rural settlement patterns reflect terrain, water availability, and social factors.
b) Describe two distinct types along with their specific geographical characteristics.

Question 13

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

According to a recent report of the Directorate of Economics and Statistics in the Union Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare, Maharashtra has outperformed Uttar Pradesh in sugar production. It has become the largest sugar-producing state in the country. Maharashtra has been maximising production by its better management of resources, proper utilisation of the mills' crushing capacity and enhanced recovery rate.
Source (edited): Times of India, Nov 7, 2022

(i) Briefly discuss any four reasons for the progress of the state, mentioned above, in sugar production. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Favourable tropical climate: The frost-free tropical climate of Maharashtra allows a longer crushing season compared to northern states.
2. Higher sucrose content: Sugarcane grown in peninsular India has a higher sucrose content and enhanced recovery rate.
3. Cooperative sugar mills: Efficient management through cooperative societies ensures better utilisation of crushing capacity and farmers' participation.
4. Modern technology: Adoption of drip irrigation and modern agronomic practices ensures steady cane supply and resource optimisation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Maharashtra has emerged as a leading sugar producer due to climatic advantages and cooperative mill management.
b) List four clear economic and geographical reasons.

(ii) How can climate impact sugar production in India? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rainfall variations: Droughts or deficient monsoons reduce sugarcane crop yield, while excessive floods cause waterlogging and crop damage.
2. Temperature fluctuations: High temperatures and dry winds reduce moisture content in standing cane, lowering juice yield.
3. Frost vulnerability: Frost in northern states damages sugarcane crops, reducing overall sugar recovery rates and production levels.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sugarcane is a water-intensive tropical crop sensitive to weather extremes.
b) Explain rainfall, temperature, and frost impacts clearly.