ISC Class 12 Biology Board Exam Question Paper 2017 with Solutions

ISC Class 12 Biology Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

Part - I (20 Marks)

Question 1.

(a) Give a brief answer for each of the following: [4]
(i) Why do Green plants start evolving CO₂ instead of O₂, at high temperatures? [1 Mark]

Answer:
At high temperatures, the affinity of RuBisCO for oxygen increases while its affinity for carbon dioxide decreases, and the rate of photorespiration rises, leading to the evolution of CO₂ instead of O₂.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that high temperature favours the oxygenase activity of the enzyme RuBisCO over its carboxylase activity.
b) Students often confuse photorespiration with regular cellular respiration; clarify that photorespiration is a light-dependent process occurring in chloroplasts, peroxisomes, and mitochondria.

(ii) Define Apomixis. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction, in which seeds are produced without fertilization and pollination.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention that apomixis results in the production of clones without genetic recombination.
b) Highlight that this phenomenon is commonly found in some species of Asteraceae and grasses.

(iii) What is a Recon? [1 Mark]

Answer:
A recon is the smallest unit of DNA capable of undergoing crossing over and recombination.

Teacher's Note:
a) Benzer introduced the terms muton, recon, and cistron to define functional subdivisions of a gene.
b) Ensure students do not confuse recon with muton (unit of mutation) or cistron (unit of function).

(iv) Why are the spores of Bacillus thuringiensis used as bioinsecticide? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Spores of Bacillus thuringiensis contain inactive crystal proteins (Bt toxin) that become toxic in the alkaline gut of insect larvae, killing them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain that the toxin exists as an inactive protoxin in the bacterium and is activated only upon ingestion by the target insect.
b) Note that specific Bt toxins are insect-group specific, making them environmentally safe bioinsecticides.

(b) Each of the following question(s)/statement(s) has four suggested answers. Choose the correct option in each case. [4]
1. Initiation codon of protein synthesis in Eukaryotes is: [1 Mark]
(i) GUA
(ii) GGA
(iii) CCA
(iv) AUG

Answer: (iv) AUG

AUG codes for methionine and serves as the universal start codon for translation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Teacher's Note:
a) AUG has a dual function: it acts as a start codon and codes for the amino acid methionine.
b) Remind students that GUG can occasionally act as a start codon in prokaryotes, but AUG is standard across eukaryotes.

2. Type of Interaction where an individual sacrifices its own welfare (life) for the benefit of another animal of its own species is: [1 Mark]
(i) Altruism
(ii) Scavenging
(iii) Protocooperation
(iv) Commensalism

Answer: (i) Altruism

Altruistic behaviour involves self-sacrifice for the reproductive success or survival of kin or conspecifics.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give examples such as alarm calling in social animals or worker bees sacrificing themselves.
b) Contrast altruism with mutualism and protocooperation where both interacting species benefit without immediate sacrifice.

3. Wings of Insect and Birds are examples of: [1 Mark]
(i) Analogous
(ii) Homologous
(iii) Vestigial
(iv) Atavism

Answer: (i) Analogous

Insect wings and bird wings have different embryonic origins and internal structures but perform the same function of flight.

Teacher's Note:
a) Analogous organs show convergent evolution due to adaptation to similar environmental demands.
b) Remind students not to confuse analogous organs with homologous organs, which share common ancestry.

4. The pressure of the cell contents on the cell wall is known as: [1 Mark]
(i) Wall pressure
(ii) Osmotic pressure
(iii) Turgor pressure
(iv) Diffusion pressure

Answer: (iii) Turgor pressure

Turgor pressure is the hydrostatic pressure developed inside a plant cell against the cell wall due to endosmosis.

Teacher's Note:
a) Wall pressure is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to turgor pressure under normal conditions.
b) Clarify that turgor pressure is crucial for maintaining cell rigidity and plant posture.

(c) Give a scientific term for each of the following: [4]
(i) An act of expelling the full term foetus from mother's uterus at the end of gestation. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Parturition.

Teacher's Note:
a) Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism involving cortisol, estrogens, and oxytocin.
b) Ensure correct spelling as part of technical biological terminology.

(ii) Entry of pollen tube into an ovule through integuments. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Mesogamy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast mesogamy with porogamy (through micropyle) and chalazogamy (through chalaza).
b) Common example of mesogamy is found in Cucurbita.

(iii) An alternative form of the single gene which influences the same character and produces different expressions in different individuals of a species. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Allele.

Teacher's Note:
a) Alleles occupy the same locus on homologous chromosomes.
b) They are responsible for variations in phenotypic traits within a population.

(iv) The study of human population covering all aspects and parameters. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Demography.

Teacher's Note:
a) Demography includes the statistical study of size, structure, and distribution of populations.
b) It is an essential component of human ecology and public health studies.

(d) Expand the following abbreviations: [4]
(i) MTP [1 Mark]

Answer:
Medical Termination of Pregnancy.

Teacher's Note:
a) MTP is legally induced abortion before the full term of gestation.
b) Emphasize full and exact spelling for full credit in board examinations.

(ii) IW [1 Mark]

Answer:
In-Vitro Fertilization.

Teacher's Note:
a) Note that the paper abbreviation is IW, commonly accepted as In Vitro Fertilization (IVF in standard usage).
b) Explain that fertilization occurs outside the body in a laboratory setup followed by embryo transfer.

(iii) HIV [1 Mark]

Answer:
Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

Teacher's Note:
a) HIV is the retrovirus that causes Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).
b) Ensure spelling of Immunodeficiency is accurate.

(iv) DPD [1 Mark]

Answer:
Diffusion Pressure Deficit.

Teacher's Note:
a) DPD is also known as suction pressure, representing the lowering of diffusion pressure of a solution compared to pure water.
b) Formula is DPD = OP - TP.

(e) Name the scientists who have contributed to the following: [4]
(i) Discovered the fossil of Cro-Magnon man. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Louis Lartet (or Edward Lartet).

Teacher's Note:
a) Cro-Magnon fossils were discovered in Les Eyzies rock shelter in France.
b) They represent the first early modern humans (Homo sapiens sapiens) in Europe.

(ii) Classified active and passive absorption of water by roots. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Kramer.

Teacher's Note:
a) Active absorption is driven by metabolic energy in root cells, while passive absorption relies on transpiration pull.
b) Kramer classified water absorption mechanisms based on metabolic dependency.

(iii) Reported Haemophilia. [1 Mark]

Answer:
John Conrad Otto.

Teacher's Note:
a) John C. Otto recognized its hereditary bleeding disorder nature in 1803.
b) It is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder.

(iv) Discovered double fertilization. [1 Mark]

Answer:
S.G. Nawaschin.

Teacher's Note:
a) Nawaschin discovered double fertilization in Fritillaria and Lilium in 1898.
b) It is a unique characteristic feature of angiosperms.

Part - II (50 Marks)

Section - A

Question 2.

(a) Differentiate between Apes and Man with respect to the following characteristics:
(i) Posture
(ii) Brow ridges
(iii) Cranial capacity [3 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Use a tabular format for comparisons to ensure clarity and secure full marks.
b) Ensure exact cranial capacity values and correct anatomical terminology are written.

(b) Define protobionts. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Protobionts are prebiotic, membrane-bound chemical aggregates (like coacervates or microspheres) containing organic molecules that possessed a primitive lipid membrane and exhibited rudimentary properties of living systems.

Teacher's Note:
a) Protobionts represent the stepping stone between abiotic chemical evolution and cellular life.
b) Mention that they could maintain a chemical internal environment different from their surroundings.

(c) What is cognogeny? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Cognogeny refers to the evolution of different life forms, mind, and consciousness on planet Earth.

Teacher's Note:
a) It is the final phase in chemical and biological evolution involving the development of nervous systems and intelligence.
b) Keep the definition concise and precise.

Question 3.

(a) Explain any three molecular (genetic) evidences in favour of organic evolution. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Universality of Genetic Code: The genetic code is nearly universal across all known organisms, from bacteria to humans, indicating a common ancestry.
2. Conservation of DNA and RNA: DNA serves as the genetic material and genetic information flows according to the Central Dogma (DNA to RNA to protein) in almost all living systems.
3. Homology in Proteins and Genes: Similar proteins (such as cytochrome c and hemoglobin) and homologous gene sequences show structural and functional similarities across related species, reflecting evolutionary divergence.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly list three distinct molecular points with brief explanations.
b) Highlight that molecular biology provides quantitative evidence of phylogenetic relationships.

(b) Define biogenesis. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Biogenesis is the biological principle stating that living organisms can arise only from pre-existing living organisms, disproving spontaneous generation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast biogenesis with abiogenesis (origin of life from non-living matter).
b) Mention Louis Pasteur's swan-neck flask experiment as proof of biogenesis.

(c) Define fossils. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Fossils are the preserved remains, impressions, tracks, or traces of organisms that lived in the geological past and are found preserved in sedimentary rocks or other media.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fossils provide direct paleontological evidence for organic evolution.
b) Mention different types such as petrified fossils, molds, and casts.

Question 4.

(a) List any three drawbacks of Darwinism. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Failure to explain the origin of variations: Darwin's theory did not explain how heritable variations arise or how new characters originate.
2. Ignorance of mutations: Darwin considered only continuous variations and did not recognize sudden mutations as a source of evolution.
3. Over-specialization and vestigial organs: The theory failed to adequately account for the survival of over-specialized organs (such as huge antlers in extinct deer) that eventually became a hindrance to the organism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention that Darwin lacked the knowledge of genetics and Mendelian inheritance during his time.
b) State three clear points to secure full marks.

(b) State Hardy-Weinberg's principle. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Hardy-Weinberg's principle states that allele frequencies in a population are stable and remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary influences such as mutation, selection, genetic drift, and gene flow.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the mathematical expression: \( p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 \).
b) Emphasize that genetic equilibrium is a theoretical baseline used to measure evolutionary change.

(c) Differentiate between Directional natural selection and Disruptive natural selection. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Directional selection favors individuals at one extreme of a phenotypic distribution, shifting the population mean in that direction, whereas disruptive selection favors individuals at both extremes over intermediate phenotypes, resulting in two distinct peaks.

Teacher's Note:
a) Directional selection leads to progressive evolutionary change in one direction.
b) Disruptive selection can lead to polymorphism or sympatric speciation by splitting the population.

Section - B

(Answer any two questions)

Question 5.

(a) Give four anatomical differences between a dicot leaf and monocot leaf. [4 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Providing a well-structured table with distinct anatomical comparisons is ideal for scoring full marks.
b) Check that key terms like isobilateral, dorsiventral, and guard cell shape are explicitly mentioned.

(b) Briefly describe the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The secretory phase (also known as the luteal phase) begins immediately after ovulation and lasts from day 15 to day 28 of the menstrual cycle.
2. Under the influence of Luteinizing Hormone (LH), the ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone and some estrogen.
3. Progesterone stimulates further thickening of the endometrium, making it highly vascular, spongy, and packed with glycogen-secreting endometrial glands to prepare for potential implantation of a blastocyst.
4. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates into the corpus albicans, causing a sharp drop in progesterone and estrogen levels, which leads to the breakdown of the endometrium and onset of menstruation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the hormonal control by LH, progesterone, and estrogen.
b) Emphasize the physiological purpose of this phase in preparing the uterus for implantation.

(c) Define: [2 Marks]
(i) Menarche [1 Mark]

Answer:
Menarche is the onset of the first menstrual bleeding in human females at puberty.

Teacher's Note:
a) It marks the attainment of sexual maturity and reproductive capability in girls.
b) Contrast with menopause, which is the permanent cessation of menstruation.

(ii) Actinomorphic symmetry [1 Mark]

Answer:
Actinomorphic symmetry (radial symmetry) is a condition where a flower can be divided into two equal halves in any radial plane passing through its center.

Teacher's Note:
a) Example: Mustard, Datura, and Chilli.
b) Contrast with zygomorphic (bilateral) symmetry.

Question 6.

(a) Give a graphic representation of the Hatch Slack or C4 cycle. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Fixation of CO₂ in mesophyll cells: Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) + CO₂ → Oxaloacetic Acid (OAA) in the presence of PEPcase.
2. Conversion to Malic Acid / Aspartic Acid: OAA is converted into malate or aspartate in mesophyll cells.
3. Transport to bundle sheath cells: Malate is transported from mesophyll cells to bundle sheath cells.
4. Decarboxylation and Calvin cycle: In bundle sheath cells, malate is decarboxylated to release CO₂, which enters the Calvin cycle, and pyruvate is transported back to mesophyll cells to regenerate PEP utilizing ATP.

[Figure: Flow diagram showing C4 pathway involving mesophyll cell fixing CO2 into OAA, conversion to malate, transport to bundle sheath cell, release of CO2 into Calvin cycle, and return of pyruvate to mesophyll cell]

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure the dual cell compartment (mesophyll and bundle sheath) is clearly indicated.
b) Emphasize the role of PEPcase enzyme and the regeneration phase of PEP.

(b) Give two significant differences between: [4 Marks]
(i) Transpiration and Guttation [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Guttation occurs under conditions of high root pressure and high humidity, whereas transpiration is favored by dry conditions.
b) Use clean tabular format.

(ii) Chlorophyll 'a' and Chlorophyll 'b' [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Molecular formula of chlorophyll 'a' is C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg and chlorophyll 'b' is C₅₅H₇₀O₆N₄Mg.
b) Emphasize their roles as primary and accessory pigments.

(c) Define the following: [2 Marks]
(i) Amniocentesis [1 Mark]

Answer:
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique in which a small sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn from the amniotic cavity surrounding the foetus to detect chromosomal abnormalities, genetic disorders, and sex determination.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention that amniocentesis involves karyotyping of foetal cells present in the amniotic fluid.
b) Highlight its medical utility in diagnosing Down syndrome and other genetic anomalies.

(ii) Polyembryony [1 Mark]

Answer:
Polyembryony is the phenomenon of the development of more than one embryo inside a single seed or fertilized ovule.

Teacher's Note:
a) Examples include Citrus and mango.
b) Extra embryos can originate from nucellus, integuments, or cleavage of the zygote.

Question 7.

(a) Describe K+ transport stomatal mechanism. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Stomatal opening is driven by an active influx of potassium ions (K⁺) into guard cells from adjacent subsidiary cells.
2. During the day, starch in guard cells is hydrolyzed into malic acid, which dissociates into malate ions and hydrogen ions (H⁺).
3. H⁺ ions are actively pumped out of guard cells in exchange for K⁺ ions from subsidiary cells using ATP energy.
4. Accumulation of K⁺ and malate ions increases the osmotic pressure inside guard cells, causing water to flow in by endosmosis, increasing turgor pressure and opening the stoma. Conversely, efflux of K⁺ ions at night causes exosmosis and stomatal closure.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that potassium transport is an active, energy-requiring process.
b) Mention the role of malic acid dissociation and osmotic potential changes.

(b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S. of anatropous ovule. [4 Marks]

Answer:
[Figure: Diagram of L.S. of anatropous ovule showing Chalaza, Raphe, Nucellus, Integuments, Antipodal cells, Central cell with secondary nucleus, Egg cell, Synergids, Micropyle, Hilum, and Funicle]

Teacher's Note:
a) Award marks for correct anatomical outline and minimum four proper labels (Micropyle, Embryo Sac, Nucellus, Funicle).
b) Ensure neat and clear pencil sketches in the answer sheet.

(c) Differentiate between the following: [2 Marks]
(i) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis [1 Mark]

Answer:
Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of haploid spermatozoa from male germ cells occurring in the testes, producing four functional sperms per meiotic division, whereas oogenesis is the formation of ova in the ovaries, producing only one functional ovum and polar bodies per meiotic division.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the difference in location and number of functional gametes produced.
b) Keep the distinction crisp and accurate.

(ii) Apocarpous ovary and syncarpous ovary [1 Mark]

Answer:
In an apocarpous ovary, the carpels are free and separate from one another, whereas in a syncarpous ovary, two or more carpels are fused together to form a single compound pistil.

Teacher's Note:
a) Example of apocarpous: Lotus and Rose.
b) Example of syncarpous: Tomato and Mustard.

Section - C

Question 8.

(a) Explain Pleiotropy with reference to phenylketonuria. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Pleiotropy is the phenomenon where a single gene controls multiple phenotypic traits.
2. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited autosomal recessive disorder caused by the mutation of the gene encoding the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.
3. The lack of this enzyme prevents the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine, leading to accumulation of phenylalanine, which causes mental retardation, reduced hair and skin pigmentation, and neurological abnormalities, demonstrating pleiotropic effects.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly define pleiotropy before linking it to phenylketonuria.
b) Emphasize how a single enzymatic defect results in diverse systemic phenotypic manifestations.

(b) Explain the mechanism of transcription in a prokaryotic cell. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Initiation: DNA-dependent RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of the DNA template with the help of a sigma factor, causing local uncoiling of the DNA helix.
2. Elongation: RNA polymerase uses ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates and polymerizes them in the 5' to 3' direction complementary to the DNA template strand.
3. Termination: When the polymerase reaches the terminator region, a rho factor assists in the release of the nascent RNA molecule and the dissociation of RNA polymerase, completing transcription.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the three distinct phases: Initiation, Elongation, and Termination.
b) Highlight the roles of sigma factor and rho factor in prokaryotic transcription.

(c) Explain Rh factor incompatibility during pregnancy. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive foetus.
2. During the delivery of the first Rh-positive child, foetal RBCs may enter the mother's circulation, stimulating her immune system to produce anti-Rh antibodies.
3. In subsequent pregnancies with an Rh-positive foetus, maternal anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta and destroy foetal RBCs, causing erythroblastosis foetilis (haemolytic disease of the newborn).

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain why the first child is usually unaffected.
b) Mention the preventive use of anti-Rh antibodies (RhoGAM) administered to the mother after delivery.

Question 9.

(a) Discuss the various In-situ and Ex-situ strategies for conservation of biodiversity. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. In-situ Conservation (On-site conservation): Protecting endangered species in their natural habitats through national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves, and sacred groves.
2. Ex-situ Conservation (Off-site conservation): Protecting species outside their natural habitats in botanical gardens, zoological parks, seed banks, gene banks, and through cryopreservation techniques.
3. National Protected Area Network: India maintains numerous national parks and sanctuaries to preserve biodiversity ecosystems.
4. Advanced Biotechnological tools: Tissue culture and cryopreservation are employed for preserving germplasm and endangered plant species.

Teacher's Note:
a) Differentiate clearly between in-situ and ex-situ conservation with suitable examples.
b) Give structured points covering both categories.

(b) List any four applications of tissue culture. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Micropropagation: Rapid clonal propagation of commercially important plants with identical genotypes in large numbers.
2. Production of virus-free plants: Utilizing meristem culture to obtain pathogen-free plant stocks from infected mother plants.
3. Somaclonal variation: Generating novel genetic variations and useful crop varieties from callus cultures.
4. Embryo rescue: Rescuing weak or hybrid embryos that fail to survive naturally inside seeds, facilitating interspecific hybridization.

Teacher's Note:
a) List four clear and distinct applications.
b) Mention keywords like micropropagation, meristem culture, and embryo rescue.

(c) Mention the causative agent and the preventive measures for each of the following: [2 Marks]
(i) Gonorrhoea [1 Mark]

Answer:
Causative agent: Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacterium).
Preventive measures: Avoiding sexual contact with unknown or multiple partners, using barrier methods (condoms) during coitus, and seeking prompt medical treatment upon early detection.

Teacher's Note:
a) Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease (STD).
b) Ensure both causative organism and prevention steps are stated.

(ii) Pneumonia [1 Mark]

Answer:
Causative agent: Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.
Preventive measures: Avoiding inhalation of droplet nuclei from infected individuals, maintaining personal hygiene, and properly sterilizing articles used by the patient.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pneumonia affects the alveoli of the lungs, filling them with fluid.
b) Mention both bacterial agents for complete credit.

Question 10.

(a) Name the components of lac operon and discuss their role. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Regulator gene (i gene): Synthesizes the repressor protein that binds to the operator gene to switch off the operon in the absence of an inducer.
2. Promoter gene: Serves as the binding site for RNA polymerase to initiate transcription when the operon is switched on.
3. Operator gene: Acts as a switch that controls the transcription of structural genes based on the presence or absence of the repressor-inducer complex.
4. Structural genes (z, y, a): Gene 'z' codes for beta-galactosidase, 'y' codes for permease, and 'a' codes for transacetylase, which metabolize lactose.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly name all components and state their specific functions.
b) Mention lactose as the inducer that inactivates the repressor protein.

(b) Give the significance of transgenic animals. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Study of normal physiology and development: Transgenic animals help researchers understand gene regulation and their effects on normal body functions.
2. Study of diseases: They serve as disease models to investigate how genes contribute to the development of complex human disorders like cancer and cystic fibrosis.
3. Biological products (Molecular farming): Transgenic animals are used to produce useful therapeutic biological products, such as alpha-1-antitrypsin for emphysema and human proteins in milk (e.g., Rosie the cow).
4. Vaccine and chemical safety testing: They are used to test the safety of vaccines and toxicity of chemicals before human trials.

Teacher's Note:
a) List four distinct, scientifically accurate points of significance.
b) Mention specific examples like transgenic cow Rosie to score extra marks.

(c) Give one significant difference between: [2 Marks]
(i) Electroporation and Gene Gun [1 Mark]

Answer:
Electroporation introduces foreign DNA into plant protoplasts by applying high-voltage electrical pulses to temporarily create microscopic pores in the cell membrane, whereas the Gene Gun method uses high-velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA to physically bombard cells and deliver genes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Both are direct gene transfer methods in plant biotechnology.
b) Highlight the distinction between electrical pore creation and particle bombardment.

(ii) ECG and EEG [1 Mark]

Answer:
ECG (Electrocardiograph) records the electrical activity of the heart muscles to diagnose cardiac conditions, whereas EEG (Electroencephalograph) records the electrical activity of the brain to study neurological functions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly between cardiac monitoring (ECG) and cerebral monitoring (EEG).
b) Keep the answer concise and precise.