ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03

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ICSE EXAMINATION

Sample Question Paper - 3

BIOLOGY

Time: 2 Hours.                                                                         Total Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately
2. You will be not allowed to write during first 15 minutes
3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
4. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]

 

SECTION A

(Attempt all questions from this Section.)

 

Question 1

Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options.
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.) [15]

 

(i) While eating her breakfast hurriedly, Nisha started to get hiccups. Hiccups occur when the food particles enter the windpipe instead of the food pipe. Which structure prevents the food from entering the windpipe during swallowing? [1 Mark]
1. Epiglottis
2. Pharynx
3. Larynx
4. Salivary gland

Answer: (1) Epiglottis

Teacher's Note:
a) The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage situated at the root of the tongue, which covers the windpipe during swallowing.
b) Students often confuse the epiglottis with the glottis or larynx; remember the epiglottis is the protective valve.

 

(ii) Assertion (A): Lysosomes are also called suicidal bags of the cell.
Reason (R): When the cell gets damaged, lysosomes burst, and their enzymes digest their own cell. [1 Mark]

1. Both A and R are true
2. Both A and R are false
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true

Answer: (1) Both A and R are true

Teacher's Note:
a) Lysosomes contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes capable of breaking down cellular components.
b) Ensure you understand that the reason correctly explains the mechanism behind the term suicidal bags.

 

(iii) Tendons and ligaments are examples of [1 Mark]
1. Fibrous connective tissue
2. Cartilage
3. Muscular tissue
4. Adipose tissue

Answer: (1) Fibrous connective tissue

Teacher's Note:
a) Tendons connect skeletal muscles to bones, while ligaments connect bones to other bones.
b) Both are dense regular fibrous connective tissues rich in collagen fibres.

 

(iv) Which of the following is a characteristic of self-pollinated flowers? [1 Mark]
1. Flowers are large and showy
2. Flowers remain closed and do not open
3. Stigma and anthers mature at the same time
4. Pollen is produced in very large quantities

Answer: (3) Stigma and anthers mature at the same time

Teacher's Note:
a) Homogamy is the condition where the anther and stigma mature simultaneously, facilitating self-pollination.
b) Large showy flowers and massive pollen production are typically adaptations for cross-pollination.

 

(v) Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide produced during respiration in the leaves serves as a raw material for photosynthesis.
Reason (R): During night-time, due to photosynthesis, the leaves produce oxygen. [1 Mark]

1. Both A and R are true
2. Both A and R are false
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true

Answer: (3) A is true and R is false

Teacher's Note:
a) Photosynthesis requires sunlight, hence it does not occur during night-time.
b) Assertion is correct because internal CO2 from respiration can be utilized in photosynthesis during daylight.

 

(vi) Identify the bacterium. [1 Mark]
[Figure: A capsule-shaped or rod-shaped bacterium colored blue with rounded ends, representing a bacillus]
1. Coccus
2. Spirillum
3. Bacillus
4. Vibrio

Answer: (3) Bacillus

Teacher's Note:
a) Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria.
b) Cocci are spherical, spirilla are spiral, and vibrios are comma-shaped.

 

(vii) Assertion (A): Alveoli of the lungs are lined by epithelial cells.
Reason (R): Gas exchange occurs in the lungs. [1 Mark]

1. Both A and R are true
2. Both A and R are false
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true

Answer: (1) Both A and R are true

Teacher's Note:
a) Alveoli are lined with a very thin layer of simple squamous epithelium to facilitate rapid diffusion of gases.
b) The reason correctly states the primary physiological function of the lungs.

 

(viii) If for some reason, the sebaceous glands fail to function, then [1 Mark]
1. The body will not be able to regulate the body temperature
2. The skin will turn darker with more melanin
3. The hair will fail to grow
4. The skin will turn dry and rough

Answer: (4) The skin will turn dry and rough

Teacher's Note:
a) Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily substance that lubricates the skin and hair.
b) Failure of these glands results in loss of moisture, leading to dry and scaly skin.

 

(ix) Which of the following categories of vertebrae are correctly matched? [1 Mark]
1. Cervical - 7
2. Thoracic - 10
3. Lumbar - 4
4. Sacral - 4

Answer: (1) Cervical - 7

Teacher's Note:
a) Humans have 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae, 5 fused sacral vertebrae, and 4 fused coccygeal vertebrae.
b) Only option 1 correctly states the vertebral count.

 

(x) Pylorus is an opening from the [1 Mark]
1. Oesophagus into the stomach
2. Mouth cavity into the stomach
3. Stomach into the intestine
4. Intestine into the rectum

Answer: (3) Stomach into the intestine

Teacher's Note:
a) The pyloric sphincter guards the exit of the stomach into the duodenum (small intestine).
b) The opening from the oesophagus into the stomach is guarded by the cardiac sphincter.

 

(xi) Kishor is three years old. He has a diet poor in proteins. He is underweight and has a protruding belly with oedema of the feet and the face. Which nutritional deficiency disorder is Kishor possibly suffering from? [1 Mark]
1. Marasmus
2. Kwashiorkor
3. Rickets
4. Beriberi

Answer: (2) Kwashiorkor

Teacher's Note:
a) Kwashiorkor is specifically caused by protein deficiency in children, characterized by oedema and a protruding belly.
b) Marasmus is caused by a deficiency of both proteins and total calories.

 

(xii) Which of these parts assist in the production of pollen grains? [1 Mark]
[Figure: Diagram of a flower showing anther indicated by A, filament indicated by B, and receptacle or stem indicated by C]
1. A only
2. B only
3. A and B only
4. B and C only

Answer: (1) A only

Teacher's Note:
a) Part A is the anther, which produces pollen grains.
b) Part B is the filament, which supports the anther.

 

(xiii) Which of the following plant parts is correctly matched with one of its stated characteristics? [1 Mark]
1. Mango seed - Aleurone layer
2. Bean seed - Endosperm
3. Maize grain - Coleoptile
4. Wheat grain - Exalbuminously

Answer: (3) Maize grain - Coleoptile

Teacher's Note:
a) Maize is a monocot grain possessing a protective sheath called the coleoptile covering the plumule.
b) Bean seeds are non-endospermic (exalbuminously), and mango is also non-endospermic.

 

(xiv) Assertion (A): The Red Cross Society was founded in 1948.
Reason (R): The function of Red Cross Society is to educate people in accident prevention. [1 Mark]

1. Both A and R are true
2. Both A and R are false
3. A is true and R is false
4. A is false and R is true

Answer: (4) A is false and R is true

Teacher's Note:
a) The International Committee of the Red Cross was founded in 1863 (Henri Dunant), making Assertion A false.
b) Reason R accurately describes one of the community services and educational roles of the Red Cross.

 

(xv) Given below are few statements which describe a particular disease in humans.
I. It is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
II. It is transmitted through the bite of the Culex mosquito.
III. It is also referred to as 'Elephantiasis'.
Which of the following diseases is being described above? [1 Mark]

1. Taeniasis
2. Filariasis
3. Ascariasis
4. Amoebiasis

Answer: (2) Filariasis

Teacher's Note:
a) Filariasis (or lymphatic filariasis) is caused by the filarial worm Wuchereria bancrofti and spread by Culex mosquitoes.
b) It leads to massive swelling of limbs, hence called elephantiasis.

 

Question 2

(i) Name the following. [5 Marks]
(a) The sweet fragrant liquid of flowers.
(b) The causative agent of AIDS.
(c) The space present between the incisors and the premolars.
(d) The bacterium which causes cholera.
(e) A measure taken to maintain health and prevent the spread of a disease.

Answer:
(a) Nectar
(b) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
(c) Diastema
(d) Vibrio cholerae
(e) Prophylaxis

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure precise biological terms are used without spelling errors.
b) Diastema refers to the gap between canines/incisors and premolars in certain animals or dental anomalies.

 

(ii) State whether the following statements are True or False. [5 Marks]
(a) Double coconut is the largest seed.
(b) Insects have two pairs of legs.
(c) Fungi reproduce by producing spores.
(d) Intercostal muscles help in internal respiration.
(e) Keratin protects us from ultraviolet rays.

Answer:
(a) True.
(b) False. (Insects have three pairs of legs.)
(c) True.
(d) False. (Intercostal muscles help in external respiration or breathing.)
(e) False. (Melanin protects us from ultraviolet rays.)

Teacher's Note:
a) When correcting a false statement, always provide the correct scientific fact.
b) Melanin pigment in the skin absorbs UV radiation, whereas keratin provides waterproofing and mechanical protection.

 

(iii) Match the items given in Column I with the most appropriate ones in Column II and rewrite the correct matching pairs. [5 Marks]

Column IColumn II
(a) Ribosomes1. Cell division
(b) Vacuoles2. Protein synthesis
(c) Cell membrane3. Regulates growth of the cell
(d) Centrioles4. Store excess water
(e) Nucleus5. Entry and exit of substances in and out of the cell
6. Respiration of the cell
7. Turgidity to the cell

Answer:
(a) Ribosomes - 2. Protein synthesis
(b) Vacuoles - 4. Store excess water (or 7. Turgidity to the cell)
(c) Cell membrane - 5. Entry and exit of substances in and out of the cell
(d) Centrioles - 1. Cell division
(e) Nucleus - 3. Regulates growth of the cell

Teacher's Note:
a) Match each organelle strictly with its primary cellular function.
b) Centrioles form the spindle apparatus during animal cell division.

 

(iv) Choose the odd one out from the following terms and name the category to which the others belong: [5 Marks]
(a) Frog, Lizard, Snake, Tortoise
(b) Chloroplast, Centrosome, Cell wall, Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma, Parenchyma, Cartilage
(d) Lysol, Carbolic acid, Benzoic acid, Formalin
(e) Pine, Chlamydomonas, Amoeba, Paramoecium

Answer:
(a) Odd one: Frog. Category: Reptiles.
(b) Odd one: Centrosome. Category: Plant cell organelles (or organelles found in plant cells).
(c) Odd one: Cartilage. Category: Simple plant tissues.
(d) Odd one: Benzoic acid. Category: Disinfectants.
(e) Odd one: Pine. Category: Unicellular organisms (Protista).

Teacher's Note:
a) Always clearly state both the odd term and the unifying category for the remaining terms.
b) Pine is a multicellular gymnosperm plant, whereas the others listed are unicellular protists.

 

(v) State two differences between each of the following pairs. [5 Marks]
(a) Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cell
(b) Respiration and Breathing
(c) Parenchyma and Sclerenchyma
(d) Striated and Unstriated muscles
(e) Active immunity and Passive immunity

Answer:

FeatureProkaryotic CellEukaryotic Cell
1. NucleusLack a well-defined nucleus.Possess a well-defined nucleus.
2. ChromosomePresence of a single chromosome.Presence of more than one chromosome.

 

FeatureRespirationBreathing
1. NatureInvolves oxidation of glucose.Involves taking in of O2 and giving out CO2.
2. EnergyLiberates energy.Does not liberate energy.

 

FeatureParenchymaSclerenchyma
1. Cell shapeCells are oval or spherical.Cells are angular and thick-walled.
2. NucleusNucleus is present.Nucleus is absent (dead cells).

 

FeatureStriated MusclesUnstriated Muscles
1. BandingMyofibrils with alternate light and dark bands.Myofibrils without alternate light and dark bands.
2. ControlControl voluntary actions.Control involuntary actions.

 

FeatureActive ImmunityPassive Immunity
1. SourceProduced by one's own body.Received from an outside source.
2. DurationProvides effective and long-lasting protection.Protection is less effective and temporary.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tabular format is best for comparison questions to ensure clear demarcation of points.
b) Ensure both contrasted features correspond directly across the rows.

 

SECTION B

(Attempt any four questions from this section.)

 

Question 3

(i) What is incineration? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Incineration is a waste disposal process that involves the combustion of organic substances contained in waste materials at very high temperatures.

Teacher's Note:
a) Incineration reduces the volume of solid waste significantly.
b) Mentioning high-temperature combustion is essential for full credit.

 

(ii) State the functions of: [2 Marks]
(a) Stigma      (b) Hypocotyl

Answer:
(a) Stigma: Receives pollen grains from the anther during pollination.
(b) Hypocotyl: Upon germination, the hypocotyl pushes the cotyledons above the ground to develop.

Teacher's Note:
a) Stigma is the sticky terminal part of the carpel adapted for trapping pollen.
b) Hypocotyl is the portion of the embryonic axis below the cotyledons.

 

(iii) Draw a neat and a labelled diagram of a mature bean seed. [2 Marks]

Answer:
[Figure: Diagram of a dissected mature bean seed showing Epicotyl, Plumule, Radicle, Hypocotyl, Cotyledon, Tegmen, and Testa with clear labels]

Teacher's Note:
a) Drawings must be neat, clean, and drawn with sharp pencils with straight label lines.
b) Key labels to include are micropyle, hilum, cotyledon, plumule, and radicle.

 

(iv) Give reason: The vertebral column is curved. [2 Marks]

Answer:
The vertebral column is curved to maintain the balance of the body in an erect position. The curve absorbs pressure and shock while walking, running and protects the vertebral column from breaking.

Teacher's Note:
a) The curves provide resilience and springiness to the spinal column.
b) Mentioning shock absorption and balance guarantees full marks.

 

(v) The given figure shows the human alimentary canal. [3 Marks]
[Figure: Diagram of human digestive system with labels 1 pointing to Stomach, 2 pointing to Small intestine, 3 pointing to Large intestine, and 4 pointing to Liver or Gall bladder]
(a) Label the parts 1 - 4.
(b) What is the function of part 3?
(c) What are the steps of nutrition in humans?

Answer:
(a) 1 - Stomach, 2 - Small intestine, 3 - Large intestine, 4 - Gall bladder
(b) The major function of the large intestine (part 3) is to absorb water from the digested food and eliminate the undigested waste from the body.
(c) Steps of nutrition in humans: Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Assimilation → Excretion

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure all 4 labels are sequentially matched with the correct anatomical organs.
b) The five steps of holozoic nutrition must be listed in correct chronological order.

 

Question 4

(i) Define tidal volume. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Tidal volume is the volume of air inspired or expired during normal breathing. It is about 500 mL.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning both the definition and the approximate volume (500 mL) is important.
b) Do not confuse it with vital capacity or residual volume.

 

(ii) Write the expanded form of: [2 Marks]
(a) ICMR      (b) ZIG

Answer:
(a) ICMR: Indian Council of Medical Research
(b) ZIG: Zoster Immune Globulin

Teacher's Note:
a) Abbreviations must be memorized precisely without spelling errors.
b) ICMR is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research.

 

(iii) What is the function of the non-essential whorls in a flower? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Non-essential whorls (sepals and petals) in a flower are also called non-reproductive or accessory whorls. They are the helping parts of a flower which either protect the reproductive parts of the flower or make the flower attractive for pollination.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sepals protect the flower bud in the early stages.
b) Petals attract insects and other pollinating agents through color and fragrance.

 

(iv) A doctor advises a patient with bone problems to include more milk and milk products in his daily diet. What could be the reason? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Milk and milk products are rich in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin A. Calcium and phosphorus are necessary for strengthening the bones and the teeth strong. The doctor advises a patient with bone problems to include more milk and milk products in his daily diet. Milk also prevents the oxidation of Vitamin A. Calcium present in the milk even helps in clotting of blood.

Teacher's Note:
a) Calcium and phosphorus are the primary mineral components of bone matrix.
b) Dairy products are the most bioavailable dietary sources of calcium.

 

(v) The following diagram refers to an apparatus which is used to demonstrate a physiological process: [3 Marks]
[Figure: Respiration apparatus showing test tubes X (with germinating peas and KOH) and Y (with boiled peas and disinfectant, and KOH), rubber tubing, and coloured water in a manometer U-tube showing rise in tubing 1]
(a) What is the purpose of keeping potassium hydroxide solution in test tubes X and Y?
(b) Why has the coloured water risen in tubing 1?
(c) What is the purpose of keeping boiled peas soaked in a disinfectant in test tube Y?

Answer:
(a) Potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution is kept in test tubes X and Y to check the presence of CO2, as KOH can absorb CO2 if it is produced.
(b) When the process of respiration takes place in test tube X, the O2 present in the test tube is consumed. The CO2 produced due to respiration is absorbed by the KOH present in the test tube. Hence, a space is developed due to the consumption of O2 and therefore, the coloured water rises in tubing 1.
(c) Boiled peas soaked in a disinfectant are kept in test tube Y because the boiled seeds are dead and cannot respire. Therefore, the process of respiration does not take place in test tube Y. It acts as a control for the experiment.

Teacher's Note:
a) KOH absorbs carbon dioxide, creating a partial vacuum when oxygen is consumed during respiration.
b) Tube Y serves as a negative control to prove that living tissues are necessary for respiration.

 

Question 5

(i) Give two examples of monocot albuminous seeds. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Bamboo and wheat.

Teacher's Note:
a) Albuminous (endospermic) seeds store food in the endosperm.
b) Maize, wheat, and barley are classic monocot endospermic examples.

 

(ii) Mention two essential functions of the nucleus. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It controls all the life processes taking place inside the cell.
2. It helps in the transmission of hereditary characteristics from one generation to another.

Teacher's Note:
a) The nucleus houses genetic material (DNA), regulating cellular metabolism and protein synthesis.
b) It acts as the control centre of the eukaryotic cell.

 

(iii) Name the kind of epithelium found in the following places: [2 Marks]
(a) Salivary gland      (b) Inner lining of the windpipe

Answer:
(a) Cuboidal epithelium
(b) Ciliated columnar epithelium

Teacher's Note:
a) Cuboidal epithelium is found in glands and ducts for secretion and absorption.
b) Ciliated epithelium in the trachea helps push mucus and trapped dust particles upwards.

 

(iv) Draw a neat and a labelled diagram of the structure of a pollen grain. [2 Marks]

Answer:
[Figure: Diagram of a pollen grain showing Exine, Intine, Germ pore, Vegetative nucleus, and Generative cell with clear labels]

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure exine (outer thick wall) and intine (inner thin wall) are distinctly shown.
b) Label the generative cell and vegetative (tube) nucleus clearly.

 

(v) What are lichens? Explain phycobiont and mycobiont. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Lichens are the symbiotic association of blue-green algae and fungi. The fungi absorb water and mineral matter and supplies it to the algae which in turn prepares food and supplies it to the fungi. Phycobiont is the algal component of lichen and mycobiont is the fungal component.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lichens are classic examples of mutualism where both organisms derive benefit.
b) Mentioning the roles of both the algal and fungal partners is essential.

 

Question 6

(i) Mention the role of the pleural fluid. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The pleural fluid provides lubrication for free movement of the expanding and contracting lungs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pleural fluid is situated between the visceral and parietal pleura.
b) It reduces friction during breathing movements.

 

(ii) What are the two kinds of fibrous connective tissue? Write one important function of each. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Two kinds of fibrous connective tissue are tendons and ligaments. Tendons connect muscles to bones whereas ligaments connect bone to bone and hold them in position.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tendons transmit muscular pull to bones to cause movement.
b) Ligaments provide stability to joints.

 

(iii) If we cut the bile duct, how will it affect the process of digestion? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Liver releases bile juice into the duodenum through the bile duct. Bile contains sodium carbonate, which neutralises the acid content of the food received from the stomach and makes it alkaline to enable the action of pancreatic and intestinal enzymes. Thus, if the bile duct is cut, the stomach acidity would increase making the environment unsuitable for the action of pancreatic and intestinal enzymes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bile is also essential for emulsification of fats.
b) Lack of bile impairs fat digestion and enzyme activation.

 

(iv) Write any two important preventive measures advised by WHO to minimise the chances of getting COVID-19. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(Any two)
1. Stay at home.
2. Wash hands regularly with soap and water.
3. Avoid crowded places.
4. Wear masks in public places and maintain social distancing.
5. Get vaccinated.

Teacher's Note:
a) Public health advisory measures must be stated accurately.
b) Writing any two valid preventive guidelines secures full marks.

 

(v) The given figure shows a certain structure of a cell. [3 Marks]
[Figure: Diagram of a cell nucleus showing nuclear membrane, nucleolus, chromatin network, and nuclear pores]
(a) Name the structure.
(b) State the key role of this structure.
(c) Is this structure present in all cells? If not, mention the cell that lacks this structure.

Answer:
(a) Nucleus
(b) The nucleus is the control centre of the cell. It regulates all metabolic activities of the cell. It also transfers hereditary characteristics from the parents to the offspring.
(c) The nucleus is not present in all cells. Human RBCs do not contain a nucleus.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mammalian mature red blood cells (erythrocytes) and sieve tube elements in plants lack a nucleus.
b) Identifying the organelle correctly from the diagram is critical.

 

Question 7

(i) Explain - 'Cell inclusions.' [1 Mark]

Answer:
Cell inclusions are non-living intracellular components of the cytoplasm, which are not bound by any membranes and do not carry out any metabolic activity. Example: Glycogen granules.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cell inclusions include stored nutrients, secretory products, and pigment granules.
b) They are distinct from membrane-bound organelles.

 

(ii) State two differences between self-pollination and cross-pollination. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(Any two)

FeatureSelf-PollinationCross-Pollination
1. Transfer of PollenTransfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower.Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of a different plant of the same species.
2. AgentsDoes not require any external agent to carry out pollination.Requires an external agent such as wind, water, or insects for pollination to occur.
3. MaturityIn self-pollinated flowers, the anther and the stigma mature at the same time.In cross-pollinated flowers, the anther and the stigma mature at different times.
4. VarietiesNew varieties are not possible.New varieties can be produced.

Teacher's Note:
a) Self-pollination preserves parental characters, whereas cross-pollination introduces genetic variations.
b) Tabulating two clear distinguishing features is sufficient for full marks.

 

(iii) State one example of carelessness in disposing research and laboratory waste. [2 Marks]

Answer:
An example of carelessness while disposing of research waste was seen in Delhi, where radioactive Cobalt-60 was given to waste dealers, who dumped it in the well of a housing colony. Several people were badly affected and suffered a lot due to this kind of dumping.

Teacher's Note:
a) Hazardous laboratory waste requires specialized disposal protocols.
b) Quoting the well-known Mayapuri radioactive scrap incident in Delhi is a standard textbook example.

 

(iv) What are bracts? State their function. [2 Marks]

Answer:
When a flower arises in the axil of a leaf-like structure, this structure is known as bract. Because bracts are large and brightly coloured structures, they are often mistaken for petals. This helps to attract insects for pollination.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bracts protect flowers in the bud stage and aid in pollinator attraction when petals are inconspicuous.
b) Bougainvillea bracts are a prime example.

 

(v) Study the diagram below and explain the types of ribs in the human body. [3 Marks]
[Figure: Diagram of human rib cage showing sternum, true ribs (1-7), false ribs (8-10), and floating ribs (11-12)]

Answer:
- There are twelve pairs of ribs in the human body.
- The first seven (7) pairs of ribs are attached with the sternum. They are called true ribs.
- The next three (3) pairs are connected to the 7th pair of ribs. They are called false ribs.
- The last two (2) pairs are free (not attached to the sternum). They are called floating ribs.

Teacher's Note:
a) True ribs attach directly to the sternum via costal cartilage.
b) Floating ribs protect kidneys and posterior abdominal organs.

 

Question 8

(i) What are the causative agents of whooping cough and tetanus? [1 Mark]

Answer:
- Whooping cough: Haemophilus pertussis
- Tetanus: Clostridium tetani

Teacher's Note:
a) Both are bacterial infections preventable through DPT vaccination.
b) Species names must be underlined or italicized with proper binomial nomenclature.

 

(ii) Explain the following terms:
(a) Residual air      (b) Dead air space [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Residual air: Some air is always left in the lungs even after forcibly breathing out. This is the left over or residual air. This volume is 1500 mL.
(b) Dead air space: Some tidal air is left in the respiratory passages such as trachea and bronchi, where no diffusion of gases can occur. This volume is called dead air space. It is 150 mL.

Teacher's Note:
a) Residual volume prevents the collapse of alveoli during forceful expiration.
b) Dead space air does not participate in gas exchange.

 

(iii) Briefly describe the action of hypothalamus in heat regulation. [2 Marks]

Answer:
The hypothalamus acts like a thermostat. When the body tends to cool below the normal temperature, it switches on or speeds up the heat-producing process. When the body tends to get overheated, it accelerates the cooling process and switches off the heat-producing process. In this way, the hypothalamus assists in heat regulation of the body.

Teacher's Note:
a) The hypothalamus serves as the body's primary thermoregulatory center.
b) It coordinates autonomic responses such as shivering or sweating to maintain core body temperature.

 

(iv) What are antibodies? When are they produced in the body? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Antibodies are immunoglobulins (a type of protein) which act against germs or their secretion and destroy them. Antibodies are produced by a type of specialised lymphocytes on exposure to antigens.

Teacher's Note:
a) Antibodies are secreted by plasma cells derived from B-lymphocytes.
b) They exhibit high specificity towards corresponding antigens.

 

(v) How does spore formation take place in fungi? Explain with the help of a diagram. [3 Marks]

Answer:
In the process of spore formation in fungi, several nuclei along with the cytoplasm are transferred to the tip of the sporangiophore. The tip is then partitioned off from the main hypha. It swells to form the sporangiophore. The protoplasm inside the sporangium breaks up into minute pieces, each of which contains several nuclei. Each piece surrounds itself with a wall and becomes a spore.
[Figure: Diagram of Rhizopus showing mycelium, hyphae, sporangiophore, sporangium, and spores being dispersed into air]

Teacher's Note:
a) Spore formation is a common asexual method of reproduction in fungi like Rhizopus.
b) The sporangium bursts to release light spores that are easily carried away by air current.

Exam Preparation Sample Paper for Class 9 Biology ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03

Class 9 Biology ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03 PDF Download Guide

Review model practice papers for Class 9 Biology. Working through the ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03 under simulated test conditions at home ensures complete familiarity with upcoming school evaluations.

Key Advantages of Solving ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03

  • Exam Blueprint: Understand mark allocations and structural guidelines relevant to Class 9 evaluations.
  • Targeted Improvement: Identify weak areas in Class 9 Biology requiring focused revision.
  • Pacing & Precision: Practice mixed question formats to build execution speed and ensure timely paper completion.

Post-Practice Strategy for Class 9 Biology

  1. Review Solutions: Evaluate your completed papers using expert-verified guidance inside our solution sets.
  2. Target Weaknesses: Class 9 students should analyze missed questions to rectify conceptual misunderstandings.
  3. Deep Revision: Re-read sections in the NCERT book for Class 9 Biology to clear doubts before solving items again.

FAQs

Where can I download the PDF for ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03?

You can download the complete PDF for ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03 for free from StudiesToday.com. Our resources for Class 9 Biology are updated for the latest academic session and follow the official exam pattern.

Are solutions provided for ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03?

Yes, ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03 comes with detailed, teacher-verified solutions. We have provided step-by-step answers for Biology to help students of Class 9 understand correct methodology and marking scheme.

How can practicing ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03 help in exam preparation?

Practicing this Biology paper helps in time management and identifying important topics. For Class 9, solving mock papers is the best way to gain confidence and reduce exam-day anxiety.

Is the ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03 accessible on mobile and tablets?

Yes, all our study materials for Class 9 Biology are provided in a mobile-friendly PDF format. You can easily download ICSE Class 9 Biology Sample Paper with Solutions Set 03 on your mobile device.