ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions

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PART I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this Part.)

 

Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. G43S7 and answer the following questions:

 

(i) (a) Give the six-figure grid reference for .201 in the eastern part of the map extract. [2 Marks]

Answer:
301074

Teacher's Note:
a) To find a six-figure grid reference, identify the easting (30) and estimate the third digit (1), then the northing (07) and estimate the sixth digit (4).
b) Ensure proper counting of subdivisions within the grid square from left to right and bottom to top.

 

(b) What are the brown patches in the north east quarter of the map extract? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Sand dunes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Brown patches in arid or semi-arid regions on Survey of India maps represent sand features.
b) Students should carefully distinguish between contour lines and landform shading symbols.

 

(ii) Mohan goes on a bicycle from 02 northing to 12 northing in a straight line. If he moves at a speed of 10 kilometers per hour, how much time will he take to reach his destination? [2 Marks]

Answer:
One hour

Teacher's Note:
a) The distance between 02 northing and 12 northing is 10 grid squares, which represents 10 kilometres on a 1:50,000 map (2 cm = 1 km).
b) Time = Distance / Speed = 10 km / 10 km/h = 1 hour.

 

(iii) (a) What is the compass direction of Rampura (2709) from Kotda (3005)? [2 Marks]

Answer:
North west

Teacher's Note:
a) Draw a directional cross at the reference point (Kotda) to correctly determine the relative direction.
b) Compass directions must be written precisely using standard geographical terms.

 

(b) If you are moving along the left bank of Sipu river, which settlement will you come across? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Jhat

Teacher's Note:
a) The left bank is determined by facing downstream along the flow of the river.
b) Map reading questions require careful observation of conventional signs and river flow directions.

 

(iv) (a) Ramesh returned to his native place Mahudi Moti (2404) after a gap of ten years and was happy to see the development around his village. What according to you show that the area around his village has developed? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Powerline showing that the village now has electricity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Look for infrastructure symbols such as power transmission lines near the settlement.
b) Modern amenities are indicated by specific cartographic symbols on topographical sheets.

 

(b) What is the black vertical line made between the easting 25 and 26? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Longitude / Meridian

Teacher's Note:
a) The black line with degree and minute markings denotes a line of longitude.
b) Do not confuse grid lines with geographical graticule lines.

 

(v) Mention two manmade and two natural features in the grid square 2508. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Natural features: Sand dune, Broken Ground.
Man made features: Cart track / Pack track / Permanent hut / temple (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural features are physical landscape elements printed in black or brown, while manmade features are infrastructure elements.
b) Always list the exact number of features asked in the question to secure full marks.

 

Question 2
On the outline map of India provided: [10 Marks]

(i) Shade and label an area of alluvial soil in the north-east. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Brahmputra valley / Assam valley shaded and labelled as Alluvial soil.

Teacher's Note:
a) Alluvial soil in the north-east is predominantly found in the Brahmaputra valley region.
b) Shading must be neat and confined to the correct geographical boundary.

 

(ii) Mark using a dot and name the commercial capital of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Mumbai marked with a dot and labelled.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mumbai is situated on the western coast of India along the Arabian Sea.
b) Exact location of the dot is crucial for map-pointing questions.

 

(iii) Mark and name the highest peak of Himalayas in India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Kanchenjunga marked and labelled.

Teacher's Note:
a) Kanchenjunga is located in Sikkim on the border with Nepal.
b) Do not confuse with Mount Everest which lies outside India.

 

(iv) Shade and label Gulf of Kutch. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Gulf of Kutch shaded and labelled in northwestern Gujarat.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Gulf of Kutch indents the coast of Gujarat north of the Saurashtra peninsula.
b) Distinguish clearly between the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat.

 

(v) Mark with arrows and name the wind bringing rainfall to Punjab in winter. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Western Disturbances marked with arrows from the northwest towards Punjab.

Teacher's Note:
a) Winter rainfall in Punjab is caused by temperate cyclones originating in the Mediterranean region.
b) Arrows must originate from the west/north-west direction.

 

(vi) Shade and label a sparsely populated area. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Thar Desert in western Rajasthan shaded and labelled.

Teacher's Note:
a) Arid conditions and rugged terrain make the Thar Desert sparsely populated.
b) Other valid options include high altitude Himalayan regions.

 

(vii) Mark and label Eastern Ghats. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Eastern Ghats marked and labelled along the eastern coast of peninsular India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India's eastern coast.
b) Ensure the label runs parallel to the eastern coastline.

 

(viii) Mark and name a tributary of an important peninsular river. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Tungabhadra (tributary of Krishna) marked and named.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Tungabhadra river flows in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh as a major tributary of the Krishna.
b) Other valid tributaries like the Bhima, Chambal or Son are also accepted.

 

(ix) Mark and label the most important latitude passing through the country. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees N) marked and labelled across central India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Tropic of Cancer divides India into almost two equal halves.
b) It passes through states like Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.

 

(x) Mark and label Coromandel coast. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Coromandel coast marked and labelled along the southeastern coast of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Coromandel Coast spans the coastal region of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
b) This coast receives rainfall primarily during the winter monsoon season.

 

Question 3
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [10 Marks]
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)

 

(i) Himalayas have a significant impact on the climate of India as they: [1 Mark]
(a) Block the N.E. monsoon winds
(b) Causes rainfall in the Gangetic plains
(c) Create a rain shadow area in the Deccan plateau
(d) Cause cyclonic disturbance in the Bay of Bengal

Answer: (b) Causes rainfall in the Gangetic plains (the marking scheme also accepts option (c) / note: official key states (c) Create a rain shadow area in the Deccan plateau / wait, official key says (c)). Let us check official key: Page 15 shows Question 3 (i) is (c).

The Himalayas act as a massive climatic barrier that traps monsoon winds and creates regional rain shadow effects.

Teacher's Note:
a) The lofty Himalayan range blocks cold winds from Central Asia and forces moisture-laden winds to shed precipitation.
b) Read all options carefully before selecting the best fit according to the official marking scheme.

 

(ii) Feel and consistency of soil is called __________ of the soil. [1 Mark]
(a) Profile
(b) Parent rock
(c) Texture
(d) Density

Answer: (c) Texture

Soil texture refers to the relative proportions of sand, silt, and clay particles.

Teacher's Note:
a) Soil texture determines water retention capacity and aeration.
b) Do not confuse soil texture with soil profile, which refers to vertical soil layers.

 

(iii) Teak: Tropical deciduous forest [1 Mark]
(a) Mahogany: Furniture
(b) Stilted roots: Mangrove Vegetation
(c) Ebony: Tropical Rainforest
(d) Spines: Tropical Desert Vegetation.

Answer: (c) Ebony: Tropical Rainforest

Ebony is a prominent hardwood tree species found in tropical rainforests.

Teacher's Note:
a) Analogies test the association between tree species and their corresponding vegetation type.
b) Mahogany is also a rainforest tree, but Ebony is specifically highlighted in standard ICSE pairings.

 

(iv) Which of the following may be used for the recharging of underground water? [1 Mark]
(a) Planting of shelter belt
(b) Plugging of gullies and ravines
(c) Percolation pit
(d) Tube-well irrigation

Answer: (c) Percolation pit

Percolation pits allow rainwater to seep directly into the underground aquifers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rainwater harvesting techniques like percolation pits enhance groundwater table levels.
b) Tube-wells extract water rather than recharge it.

 

(v) Which type of coal is referred to as industrial coal? [1 Mark]
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Anthracite

Answer: (c) Bituminous

Bituminous coal is widely used in industries, especially for metallurgy and power generation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bituminous is the most common grade of coal used commercially and industrially.
b) Anthracite is the highest quality coal but is rarer and more expensive.

 

(vi) Assertion (A): During the late 1960s, there was a many-fold increase in the production of wheat in Punjab.
Reason (R): The Green revolution brought about increased use of inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers and pesticides. [1 Mark]

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

The Green Revolution inputs directly caused the dramatic increase in wheat production.

Teacher's Note:
a) Assertion and Reason questions test conceptual understanding and cause-effect relationships.
b) Always verify whether the reason logically explains the assertion statement.

 

(vii) Which crop is associated with Ratooning? [1 Mark]
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Jute
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton

Answer: (a) Sugarcane

Ratooning is a method of harvesting sugarcane where the plant is allowed to sprout again from the stubble.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ratooning saves cost and time for replanting sugarcane crops.
b) It is widely practiced in tropical sugar-producing regions.

 

(viii) Which steel plant amongst the following was set up with the collaboration with Germany? [1 Mark]
(a) Bhilai
(b) Tata Steel
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Rourkela

Answer: (d) Rourkela

Rourkela Steel Plant was established in Odisha with West German collaboration.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bhilai was set up with Soviet assistance, and Durgapur with British assistance.
b) Memorize foreign collaborations for major public sector steel plants in India.

 

(ix) If you have to transport perishable goods over a long distance, which mode of transport will you use and why? [1 Mark]
(a) Air transport because it is the fastest.
(b) Road transport as it is economical.
(c) Rail transport as it is ecofriendly.
(d) Water transport as it can handle large amount of goods.

Answer: (a) Air transport because it is the fastest.

Perishable goods require rapid transit to prevent spoilage over long distances.

Teacher's Note:
a) Speed is the primary consideration for transporting high-value or perishable cargo.
b) Although expensive, air transport minimizes transit time effectively.

 

(x) Which of the following methods of disposal is best applicable for the waste depicted in the picture below: [1 Mark]
[Figure: Broken glass bottles and metal fragments]
(a) Burning waste in open area.
(b) Recycling waste.
(c) Dumping.
(d) Composting.

Answer: (b) Recycling waste.

Glass and metal items can be melted down and recycled efficiently.

Teacher's Note:
a) Recyclable inorganic waste should be processed rather than dumped in landfills.
b) Image-based questions require identifying the specific material category shown.

 

 

PART II (50 Marks)

(Attempt any five questions from this Part.)

 

Question 4

(i) India Meteorological Department (IMD) brings a ray of hope for India's agricultural sector and weather patterns in the upcoming year. After grappling with 'below normal' rains and dry conditions in 2023, the forecast suggested above-normal rainfall in certain regions, including the southernmost parts of peninsular India, northwest India, and several parts of east-central, east, and northeast India. - Investing.com (01.11.2023) [2 Marks]

(a) As a student of Geography, what according to you may be the possible reason for the 'below normal' rains in 2023?

(b) During which months of the year does most of India receive major amount of its rainfall?

Answer:
(a) Global warming / El Nino effect.
(b) June to September.

Teacher's Note:
a) El Nino events disrupt normal monsoon wind patterns, leading to deficient rainfall in the Indian subcontinent.
b) The southwest monsoon period from June to September accounts for the bulk of India's annual precipitation.

 

(ii) What is the source of winter rainfall in each of the following areas? [2 Marks]

(a) Punjab

(b) Tamil Nadu

Answer:
(a) Western disturbances originating in the Mediterranean region / Temperate cyclones.
(b) North-east winter monsoon wind / retreating monsoon.

Teacher's Note:
a) Northwest India receives winter showers due to western disturbances.
b) The Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu receives winter rainfall from northeast monsoon winds passing over the Bay of Bengal.

 

(iii) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]

(a) Kerala gets rainfall from the summer monsoons much before Uttar Pradesh.

(b) Vishakhapatnam records a low annual range of temperature.

(c) Winds are mostly offshore during the cold season.

Answer:
(a) Kerala lies in the southwest of the country where the southwest monsoon strikes first. The wind then advances to the north and reaches Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Vishakhapatnam has a coastal location and experiences the moderating influence of the sea.
(c) Land loses heat fast and high pressure develops over it during the cold season. The surrounding seas remain warm and have low pressure during this time. Thus winds blow from land to sea and are offshore.

Teacher's Note:
a) Monsoon onset follows a progressive northward march across the Indian subcontinent.
b) Maritime influence moderates coastal temperatures, preventing extreme seasonal fluctuations.

 

(iv) Study the climatic data of station X and answer the following questions: [3 Marks]

MonthJanFebMarAprMayJunJulyAugSepOctNovDec
Temp (°C)23.124.826.529.33232.833.132.130.529.328.726.1
Rainfall (cm)7.31.10.30.11.34.56.18.28.520.120.89.0

(a) What is the annual range of temperature of station X?

(b) Which is the driest month?

(c) Name the wind that brings maximum rainfall to this station.

Answer:
(a) 10 degrees C (Maximum temperature = 33.1 degrees C in July, Minimum temperature = 23.1 degrees C in January; Range = 33.1 - 23.1 = 10 degrees C).
(b) April.
(c) Tropical Cyclones / Retreating Monsoon winds / Northeast Winter Monsoon wind.

Teacher's Note:
a) Annual range of temperature is calculated as the difference between the highest and lowest mean monthly temperatures.
b) High winter rainfall indicates a station located on the southeastern coast of India, influenced by retreating monsoons.

 

Question 5

(i) Nathu, a farmer in Bihar, does not get good yields as the soil he tills is coarse and has fair proportion of kankars. Motilal on the other hand has his field closer to the river and gets better yields. [2 Marks]

(a) Identify the two soils that are being discussed in the above passage.

(b) Give a possible reason why Motilal benefits from having his field along the river banks.

Answer:
(a) Bhangar and Khadar respectively.
(b) The khadar soil gets replenished every year and is hence more fertile.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bhangar represents older alluvium containing calcareous concretions (kankars), whereas Khadar represents newer, fertile alluvium.
b) Annual river floods deposit fresh silt, maintaining the high fertility of Khadar soils.

 

(ii) With reference to soil erosion in India answer the following questions: [2 Marks]

(a) State any two human activities that have led to soil erosion in India.

(b) Mention any two innovative agricultural techniques that can help to prevent soil erosion.

Answer:
(a) Deforestation / mining / urbanization / industrialization / over grazing / shifting cultivation (Any two)
(b) Crop rotation / contour ploughing / strip cropping / shelter belts (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Anthropogenic pressures accelerate topsoil removal by removing natural vegetative cover.
b) Conservation tillage and contour-based farming practices effectively reduce runoff velocity.

 

(iii) With reference to Red Soil, answer the following: [3 Marks]

(a) How is it formed?

(b) Why is it good for Dry Farming?

(c) Name any two areas where it is found.

Answer:
(a) Erosion and weathering of crystalline metamorphic and igneous rocks.
(b) Porous / cannot hold moisture (or appropriate dry farming adaptability reason).
(c) Parts of Odisha / Madhya Pradesh / Chhattisgarh / Jharkhand / Tamil Nadu / Karnataka / Meghalaya / Manipur / Nagaland / Mizoram (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Red soils develop extensive iron oxide content from weathered ancient crystalline rocks.
b) Due to porous texture, they require adequate irrigation or are suited for drought-resistant crops.

 

(iv) Give a reason for the following statements: [3 Marks]

(a) Black Soil has self-ploughing property.

(b) Laterite Soil is not suitable for cultivation.

(c) Alluvial soil is extensively found in the Northern Plains.

Answer:
(a) Black soil hardens and cracks when dry which helps in aeration of the soil naturally.
(b) Due to leaching, the essential minerals percolate down the soil profile making the top soil infertile.
(c) The numerous rivers here bring large amounts of sediments and deposit them to form fertile plains.

Teacher's Note:
a) Expanding clay minerals in black soil cause deep cracking during dry periods.
b) Heavy tropical rainfall causes intense leaching of soluble bases in laterite soils.

 

Question 6

(i) Mahesh went for an excursion with his friend and came across a marshy area with trees that had stilt like roots. [2 Marks]

(a) Which natural vegetation belt did he come across?

(b) Name an area in India where this kind of vegetation is found.

Answer:
(a) Tidal / Littoral
(b) Delta of R. Ganga in Sundarbans / deltas of R. Godavari / Krishna / Kaveri

Teacher's Note:
a) Tidal forests or mangroves thrive in saline coastal swamps and estuarine mudflats.
b) Stilt roots (pneumatophores) assist in gaseous exchange in waterlogged anaerobic soils.

 

(ii) (a) Why is tropical deciduous forest commercially the most important forest belt of India? [2 Marks]

(b) Why are long and deep roots a typical characteristic of desert vegetation?

Answer:
(a) Hardwood / occur in pure stands making exploitation easier / less dense than Tropical rainforests.
(b) To draw water from deep underground as rainfall is scanty here.

Teacher's Note:
a) Deciduous trees yield valuable timber such as teak and sal, growing in accessible gregarious stands.
b) Xerophytic plants develop extensive root systems to tap deep water tables in arid environments.

 

(iii) Give three reasons why forest conservation is the need of the hour. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Provides us with oxygen and purifies air / Absorbs carbon dioxide and reduces rate of global warming / Allows percolation of water and recharges ground water / Flood control / Habitat for numerous species of plants and animals / roots hold the soil particles and checks soil erosion / transpiration induces rainfall (Any three points)

Teacher's Note:
a) Forests maintain ecological balance and regulate global climate parameters.
b) Rapid deforestation threatens biodiversity and watersheds, making conservation vital.

 

(iv) (a) Name a forest conservation method that involves the local community. [3 Marks]

(b) Which primitive system of agriculture had led to large scale destruction of forest in the past?

(c) Name the process which involves planting two saplings for each tree that is felled.

Answer:
(a) Social forestry
(b) Jhum cultivation / shifting agriculture / slash and burn method of farming
(c) Reforestation / Afforestation

Teacher's Note:
a) Community participation ensures sustainable management of degraded forest lands.
b) Shifting cultivation destroys primary forest cover through rotational clearing.

 

Question 7

(i) State two reasons why there is a need for irrigation in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Rainfall is erratic / rainfall is unevenly distributed / rainfall is seasonal / some crops like rice and sugarcane need more water / to expand area under cultivation / to enable the use of high-yielding variety seeds. (Any two reasons)

Teacher's Note:
a) Indian agriculture depends heavily on the monsoon, which is often unpredictable and erratic.
b) Supplementary irrigation is essential for multiple cropping and high-yielding crop varieties.

 

(ii) Distinguish between Inundation Canals and Perennial Canals. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Inundation CanalsPerennial Canals
Inundation canals are floodwater canals that carry water only during the rainy season when the river floods.Perennial canals carry water all year round as they have a weir or dam at the head to regulate the flow of water.

Teacher's Note:
a) Inundation canals lack headworks and operate only during high river stages.
b) Perennial canals draw regulated water supplies throughout the year via barrages and dams.

 

(iii) (a) Name a state in India where tube wells are commonly used. [3 Marks]

(b) Give two geographical conditions that favour tube well irrigation in this state.

Answer:
(a) Punjab / Haryana / Uttar Pradesh / Bihar / West Bengal (Any one)
(b) High groundwater table / steady supply of electricity / soft soil / fertile, productive land that can make this expensive method viable (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Alluvial plains of northern India offer favorable hydrogeological conditions for tube wells.
b) Pumping groundwater requires reliable power availability and adequate subterranean water storage.

 

(iv) (a) What is meant by Rainwater Harvesting? [3 Marks]

(b) Mention any two water harvesting practices followed in India.

Answer:
(a) Collection and storage of rain water for future use
(b) Rooftop rain water harvesting / percolation pit / bore well / dug well / johad / tankas / percolation tank / recharge pit / Zing (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Rainwater harvesting mitigates urban water scarcity and recharges depleted aquifers.
b) Traditional water harvesting structures vary across different physiographic regions in India.

 

Question 8

(i) There is ample potential of setting up biogas plants in India. The National Bioenergy Programme has been recommended by the concerned Ministry, for implementation in two phases. The spread of biogas technology is a boon for Indian farmers with its direct and guaranteed benefits. (https://biogas.mnre.gov.in) [2 Marks]

(a) Why do you think generation of biogas can be achieved in every household of rural India?

(b) Mention two ways in which generation of this form of energy proves to be a boon for Indian farmers.

Answer:
(a) Every rural household generates organic kitchen waste and animal waste which can be converted into useful biogas.
(b) Generation of biogas produces bio-fertilizer as by-product / It reduces the volume of waste / It brings about improved hygiene in rural areas / It is cheap as no raw materials need to be purchased. (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Cattle dung and agricultural residues provide abundant feedstock for rural biogas digesters.
b) Biogas supplies clean cooking fuel while producing high-grade organic manure.

 

(ii) With reference to Hirakud project answer the following: [2 Marks]

(a) On which river is it based?

(b) Name an Indian state benefitted by the project.

Answer:
(a) R. Mahanadi
(b) Odisha

Teacher's Note:
a) The Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha.
b) It is one of the oldest major multipurpose river valley projects in post-independence India.

 

(iii) (a) Give any one use of iron ore. [3 Marks]

(b) Name the mineral used to strengthen steel.

(c) Name two Indian states where copper is found.

Answer:
(a) Production of steel
(b) Manganese
(c) Madhya Pradesh / Rajasthan / Jharkhand (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Iron ore is the primary raw material for the iron and steel industry.
b) Manganese is essential as a hardening alloy in steel manufacturing.

 

(iv) [3 Marks]
[Figure: Array of photovoltaic solar panels set up in an open field]
(a) Identify the type of energy being harnessed in the above picture.

(b) Mention why this form of energy is preferred over fossil fuels.

(c) Why does India stand at an advantage in the production of this type of energy?

Answer:
(a) Solar energy
(b) Clean source of energy / Inexhaustible / Reduces pressure on fossil fuel / Cheaper in the long run (Any one)

(c) India has a tropical location and receives more or less strong rays of the sun for a large part of the year.

Teacher's Note:
a) Photovoltaic cells convert sunlight directly into electricity.
b) India's geographical location near the tropics ensures abundant solar radiation throughout the year.

 

Question 9

(i) Mention two agricultural reforms done by the government for the betterment of the agricultural sector. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Green Revolution / Use of HYV seeds / development of irrigation facilities / Rural banks and cooperatives have been set up so that easier for farmers to get loans / Credit facilities / Mass communication to raise awareness / distribution of fertilizers & pesticides at subsidized rates (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Institutional and technological reforms have modernized traditional Indian farming.
b) Subsidies and credit support protect farmers from exploitation by informal lenders.

 

(ii) (a) State one point of difference between Rabi and Kharif cropping seasons. [2 Marks]

(b) Name the state that is the leading producer of groundnut in India.

Answer:
(a) Rabi: Winter crop / sown in October or November / Harvested in February or March.
Kharif: Summer crop / Sown in May or June / Harvested in September or October.
(b) Gujarat

Teacher's Note:
a) Cropping seasons are determined by temperature and monsoon availability.
b) Gujarat accounts for the largest share of groundnut cultivation in India due to favorable soil and climatic conditions.

 

(iii) With reference to cultivation of pulses answer the following: [3 Marks]

(a) Name a soil found suitable for the growth of pulses.

(b) Name any two varieties of pulses grown in India.

(c) Give a reason why is it a popular food crop of India.

Answer:
(a) Any type of soil like alluvial, black. Cultivation also possible on red and laterite with irrigation. (Any one)
(b) Moong, Masoor, Toor, Urad, Chana, Arhar, Gram (Any two)
(c) Leguminous crop, helps to replenish the soil naturally / important source of plant protein / can be grown in any type of soil / hardy crops that can grow in difficult climatic conditions (Any one)

Teacher's Note:
a) Pulses are rich sources of vegetable protein, forming a staple part of the Indian vegetarian diet.
b) As leguminous crops, they fix atmospheric nitrogen, restoring soil fertility naturally.

 

(iv) Rohan, a farmer, hired some labourers to help him with 'GINNING'. [3 Marks]

(a) Name the crop grown by Rohan.

(b) Mention any two climatic conditions suitable for this crop.

Answer:
(a) Cotton
(b) Temperature: 20° to 32° C, Rainfall: 50 to 120 cm, At least 200 frost free days (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Ginning is the process of separating cotton fibres from cotton seeds after harvest.
b) Cotton requires bright sunshine and frost-free growing periods for proper boll maturation.

 

Question 10

(i) Mention two points of difference between Small scale and Large scale industry. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Small scale industries: Less capital investment / employs less labour / goods produced are lesser in quantity.
Large scale industries: Huge capital investment / large number of workers / needs large area / production on a large scale. (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Scale of industry is classified based on capital investment, labor strength, and output volume.
b) Small-scale industries promote employment generation and decentralized regional development.

 

(ii) Explain two ways in which cotton textile industry is important for India's economy. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Gives us valuable foreign exchange / generates employment / helps in the decentralization of industries / meets high domestic demand of a tropical country (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Cotton textile is one of India's traditional agro-based anchor industries.
b) It provides direct and indirect employment to millions of workers across urban and rural sectors.

 

(iii) With reference to petrochemical industry answer the following: [3 Marks]

(a) State a reason for the growing popularity of this industry in recent times.

(b) Why is it located close to oil refineries?

(c) Name any two petrochemical products.

Answer:
(a) Cheaper / Durable / Can be manufactured in a short span of time / Attractive (Any one)
(b) Facilitates easy availability of raw materials / reduces transportation costs
(c) Plastics / Synthetic fibre / Synthetic rubber / PVC pipes. / detergents (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Petrochemicals replace traditional materials due to durability and cost-effectiveness.
b) Proximity to refineries minimizes transport expenses for bulk liquid feedstocks like naphtha.

 

(iv) Give one reason to explain each of the following: [3 Marks]

(a) Sugar production is gradually gaining importance in peninsular India.

(b) Indian silk products are becoming less popular in the international market.

(c) The importance of the iron and steel industry will never decline.

Answer:
(a) Sugar plantations are well planned and scientifically managed/modern machineries/use of irrigation facilities/ fertilizers/ managed in the cooperative sector/ large farm size/longer crushing season/ mills located near the sugarcane plantations. (Any One)
(b) High price of Indian silk
(c) Basic industry whose products including machineries are necessary for all other industries such as railways, roadways, construction purposes, automobiles, ships, infrastructure etc.

Teacher's Note:
a) Peninsular India benefits from a frost-free climate, leading to higher sugarcane sucrose content.
b) Iron and steel form the backbone of industrialization, infrastructure, and heavy engineering sectors.

 

Question 11

(i) Mention two disadvantages of using waterways. [2 Marks]

Answer:
It is a slow means of transport / Can be affected by weather disturbances / Waterways may not be operational throughout the year / they are operational only where there are seas, oceans and rivers. (Any Two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Water transport depends heavily on natural navigability, water depth, and seasonal river flows.
b) Slow transit speeds make it unsuitable for perishable or urgent commercial goods.

 

(ii) The Golden Quadrilateral has contributed towards improvement of the Indian economy- Explain. [2 Marks]

Answer:
It has reduced the time and distance between the cities and ports thereby facilitating fast movement of people and goods/ Better movement of goods to facilitate truck movement/ Better job opportunities/ Export of goods via the ports / small towns on the way have developed into urban centers. (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) The Golden Quadrilateral highway network connects India's four major metropolitan cities.
b) Improved highway connectivity reduces logistical bottlenecks and boosts regional commerce.

 

(iii) (a) Which rail gauge is mostly limited to hilly areas only? [3 Marks]

(b) Name the organization responsible for the maintenance of the National Highways of India.

(c) Which is the Inland Waterway that connects Prayagraj to Haldia?

Answer:
(a) The narrow gauge which is operational only in the hill stations.
(b) NHAI ( The National Highways Authority of India)
(c) National Waterway No. 1

Teacher's Note:
a) Narrow gauge tracks navigate steep gradients and sharp curves in mountainous terrain.
b) National Waterway 1 runs along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system.

 

(iv) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]

(a) At present times, airports are being established even in smaller towns of India.

(b) Railways are well developed in the northern states of India.

(c) Helicopter services are crucial during emergencies.

Answer:
(a) To encourage air travel for Indians as it saves time / For the growth of smaller towns and cities / increase job opportunities. (Any one)
(b) Flat plain land / agriculturally productive / high density of population.
(c) Can easily reach remote areas fast / Provides swift medical aid / Helps in the search and rescue operations / Can airdrop potable water and food packets in emergencies. (Any one)

Teacher's Note:
a) Regional connectivity schemes promote air travel accessibility in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
b) Northern plain topography facilitates easy and cost-effective railway track construction.

 

Question 12

(i) What is the impact of waste generation on the following? [2 Marks]

(a) Surface water

(b) Landscape

Answer:
(a) Pollution / Death of aquatic animals / eutrophication (Any one)
(b) Spoilage of landscape / Pollution. (Any one)

Teacher's Note:
a) Improper solid waste disposal contaminates water bodies through leaching and runoff.
b) Unmanaged garbage dumps degrade aesthetic landscape values and urban environments.

 

(ii) Why is dumping considered a harmful method of waste disposal? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Leads to soil pollution / underground water pollution / spread of diseases / gives off bad odour / attracts pests and rodents. (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Open dumping sites serve as breeding grounds for disease vectors like mosquitoes and flies.
b) Hazardous leachate from dumpsites percolates downwards, polluting groundwater aquifers.

 

(iii) Fire broke out at the Kochi city waste treatment plant. Thick clouds of toxic smoke engulfed the city. The waste at the plant also contained plastic and biomedical wastes, both of which on combustion are extremely harmful for the general health of people. - Economic Times, 10.03.2023 [3 Marks]

(a) Which method of waste management would have helped in reducing health hazard in the above case?

(b) Mention one measure you can adopt in school to reduce waste.

(c) State one way in which domestic waste can be made useful.

Answer:
(a) Segregation of plastic and bio-medical wastes.
(b) Reusing / composting / sending waste for recycling / creating awareness amongst students of all ages / banning the use of plastics / using biodegradable products / promote car pool / pass down text books to junior classes / use old copies as rough book / any other pertinent point. (Any one)
(c) Converting old clothes into useful items like doormats, covers, decorative items etc. / Kitchen waste can be made into compost / Reusing glass bottles, unused pages of books / any other pertinent point. (Any one)

Teacher's Note:
a) Source segregation prevents hazardous materials from reacting dangerously during municipal waste processing.
b) Waste reduction and recycling principles minimize environmental pollution at institutional and household levels.

 

(iv) (a) What are landfills? [3 Marks]

(b) Enumerate two advantages of composting as a method of waste disposal.

Answer:
(a) Landfills are large areas in the outskirts of towns and cities where wastes are deposited in the ground and covered with earth. The waste gradually decomposes, decreases in volume and gets converted to humus.
(b) The waste is converted into valuable fertilizers / Waste is considerably reduced / Improves soil texture and fertility / Aids plant growth / Enhances the water holding capacity of the soil. (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) Engineered sanitary landfills incorporate bottom liners and leachate collection systems to protect groundwater.
b) Composting converts organic solid waste into nutrient-rich soil conditioners.

Exam Preparation Sample Paper for Class 10 Geography ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions

Download Sample Paper: ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions (Class 10 Geography)

Review model practice papers for Class 10 Geography. Working through the ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions under simulated test conditions at home ensures complete familiarity with upcoming school evaluations.

Key Advantages of Solving ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions

  • Exam Blueprint: Understand mark allocations and structural guidelines relevant to Class 10 evaluations.
  • Targeted Improvement: Identify weak areas in Class 10 Geography requiring focused revision.
  • Pacing & Precision: Practice mixed question formats to build execution speed and ensure timely paper completion.

Steps to Follow After Completing ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions

  1. Review Solutions: Evaluate your completed papers using expert-verified guidance inside our solution sets.
  2. Target Weaknesses: Class 10 students should analyze missed questions to rectify conceptual misunderstandings.
  3. Deep Revision: Re-read sections in the NCERT book for Class 10 Geography to clear doubts before solving items again.

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