ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Paper 2022 with Solutions

SECTION A

(Attempt all questions.)

Question 1
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following: [10]

(i) Himalayas

(ii) River Ganga

(iii) Chennai

(iv) Western Ghats

(v) Gulf of Kutch

(vi) Malabar coastal plain

(vii) Karakoram Pass

(viii) Black soil area in peninsular region

(ix) Standard Meridian of India

(x) Jharia coal field

Answer:
[Figure: Outline political map of India showing the correct locations marked as follows: (i) Himalayas in the northern extreme boundary, (ii) River Ganga flowing across northern India into Bangladesh, (iii) Chennai located on the southeastern coast, (iv) Western Ghats running parallel to the western coast, (v) Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat on the western coast, (vi) Malabar coastal plain along the southwestern coast of Kerala, (vii) Karakoram Pass in the northernmost part of Jammu and Kashmir / Ladakh, (viii) Black soil area covering the north-western Deccan trap region in the peninsular plateau, (ix) Standard Meridian of India (82 degrees 30 minutes E) passing vertically through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh, and (x) Jharia coal field located in the state of Jharkhand.]

Teacher's Note:
a) Students must practice marking physical and political features accurately on the standard outline map of India as per ICSE guidelines.
b) Clear labeling with arrows pointing to the exact locations is essential to secure full marks in map work.

SECTION B

(Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 2

(i) (a) Give any one use of Manganese. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Manganese is used in the manufacturing of steel to give the steel strength and hardness.

Teacher's Note:
a) Manganese is a key ferro-alloy used widely in metallurgical industries.
b) Mentioning its specific property (strength and hardness) is important for full credit.

(i) (b) Why is copper used in electrical appliances? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Copper is used in electrical appliances due to its low resistance and excellent conductivity, and because it is ductile and relatively less resistant to corrosion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Electrical conductivity is the primary property that makes copper indispensable in electrical wiring.
b) Students should mention both conductivity and ductility to ensure complete answers.

(ii) Give two advantages of using Natural gas over coal. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Natural gas burns almost completely, leaving no ash pile behind.
2. Natural gas produces about half as much carbon dioxide as coal to produce the same amount of energy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural gas is considered a cleaner fossil fuel compared to solid coal.
b) Emphasize environmental benefits such as lower emissions and cleaner burning.

(iii) With reference to Bhakra Nangal dam answer the following:
(a) On which river is it situated? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Bhakra Nangal dam is situated on the Sutlej river.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bhakra Nangal is one of the largest river valley projects in India.
b) Ensure accurate spelling of the river name (Sutlej).

(iii) (b) Name any two states benefitted by Bhakra Nangal. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Haryana, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, and Punjab. (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) This multipurpose project provides irrigation and hydel power to northern states.
b) Memorize at least two correct beneficiary states to avoid losing marks.

(iv) (a) Mention two advantages of using biogas. [1½ Marks]

Answer:
1. Biogas is a renewable and clean source of energy that helps in reducing reliance on fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas.
2. Biogas by-products are effectively used as organic fertilizer.

Teacher's Note:
a) Biogas promotes rural sanitation and waste management alongside energy production.
b) Clearly state both the energy aspect and the utility of slurry as manure.

(iv) (b) How has the nuclear power contributed in reducing the pressure on Conventional sources of energy? [1½ Marks]

Answer:
Nuclear power is far more efficient than burning fossil fuels; the amount of energy released from uranium per gram is approximately 8,000 times more than that of conventional fuels such as oil or coal, thereby greatly reducing the pressure on conventional sources.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the high energy density of radioactive minerals like uranium.
b) Mentioning the comparative efficiency factor adds technical weight to the answer.

Question 3

(i) Mention two ways in which agriculture sector is important for India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is a vital sector of the Indian economy, contributing significantly to the total Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
2. It provides the main source of food, income, and employment to a large proportion of the rural households.

Teacher's Note:
a) Agriculture forms the backbone of the Indian economy.
b) Highlight both economic contribution (GDP) and livelihood generation.

(ii) (a) Name two agriculture seasons of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Rabi (October-November to March-April)
2. Kharif (June-July to September-October)

Teacher's Note:
a) India has distinct cropping seasons dictated by the monsoon regime.
b) Mentioning the approximate months for each season demonstrates thorough preparation.

(ii) (b) Name one crop that grows in each of the season mentioned by you. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Rabi crop: Wheat (or oat, mustard, barley, gram)
2. Kharif crop: Rice (or maize, cotton, jowar, sugarcane)

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure the crops correctly correspond to the respective agricultural seasons named in part (a).
b) Wheat is the classic example for Rabi and rice for Kharif.

(iii) With reference to Wheat cultivation answer the following:
(a) Name the soil found suitable for its growth. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Alluvial soil rich in humus and loamy in texture with good structure and high water-holding capacity is ideal for wheat cultivation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Wheat requires fertile, well-drained loamy soils.
b) Mentioning soil texture along with humus content secures full marks.

(iii) (b) Name the state that is the largest producer of this crop in India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Uttar Pradesh leads due to extensive fertile plains of the Ganga basin and irrigation facilities.
b) State names must be spelled correctly.

(iii) (c) Why is this crop not grown in southern parts of India? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Wheat requires a cool climate with temperatures around 10 to 15 degrees Celsius at the time of sowing, which is not experienced in southern India where temperatures remain high throughout the year and soils are predominantly laterite and red.

Teacher's Note:
a) Temperature at sowing time is the critical climatic factor determining wheat distribution.
b) Mention both temperature requirements and soil type differences.

(iv) (a) Name the largest producer of tea in India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Assam is the largest producer of tea in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Assam provides rolling topography, heavy rainfall, and acidic soils ideal for tea.
b) Keep answers direct and specific.

(iv) (b) What is GINNING? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Ginning is the process of removing seeds and debris from harvested cotton bolls before spinning.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ginning separates cotton fibers from cottonseed and dust particles.
b) This is a crucial primary processing step in the textile manufacturing sequence.

(iv) (c) Why is PRUNING essential for tea crop? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Pruning encourages the growth of fresh tea shoots with softer leaves and keeps the plant at a convenient height of about 1.2 meters so that leaves can be plucked easily.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pruning stimulates lateral vegetative growth rather than vertical tree growth.
b) Both bush maintenance (height) and leaf quality (tender shoots) must be mentioned.

Question 4

(i) Differentiate between public sector and private sector industry giving suitable example for each from India. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Differentiation questions must be answered in a tabular format contrasting ownership and control.
b) Providing correct Indian examples for both sectors is mandatory.

(ii) Give two ways in which cotton textile industry is important for India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is the second largest employer in the country after agriculture, providing direct and indirect employment to millions of people.
2. It contributes significantly to industrial production and export earnings.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cotton textile is one of India's oldest and most widespread agro-based industries.
b) Highlight employment generation and contribution to foreign exchange or industrial output.

(iii) With reference to Rourkela steel plant answer the following:
(a) Where is it located? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Rourkela steel plant is located in the north-western tip of Odisha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the state and specific geographic location for steel plants.
b) Rourkela is situated close to mineral belts and river sources.

(iii) (b) Which country helped India to establish this steel plant? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Germany helped India establish the Rourkela steel plant.

Teacher's Note:
a) Public sector steel plants in India were established with foreign collaboration during the Second Five-Year Plan.
b) Match collaborators correctly: Rourkela with Germany, Bhilai with USSR, and Durgapur with the UK.

(iii) (c) From where does it get its iron ore requirement? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Rourkela steel plant gets its iron ore requirement from the Sundargarh and Keonjhar districts of Odisha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Raw material linkage is crucial for heavy metallurgical industries.
b) Mention both the ore mines/districts and the state accurately.

(iv) (a) What are the benefits of using petrochemical products? (Any two) [1½ Marks]

Answer:
1. Petrochemical products are economical and cost-effective as they are produced on a large scale.
2. They are durable compared to traditional agricultural products and raw materials are easily available.

Teacher's Note:
a) Petrochemicals form the backbone of synthetic polymer, plastic, and synthetic fiber industries.
b) Students should state any two clear economic or functional benefits.

(iv) (b) How has the electronic industry revolutionized the entertainment sector? [1½ Marks]

Answer:
The electronic industry, through mass-scale integration, has produced computers, displays, televisions, cameras, and digital recording devices, enabling high-definition broadcasting of news, advertisements, and cinema to a vast population globally.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect advancements in electronics (TVs, digital media) directly to mass entertainment.
b) Mention how reach and quality of communication have transformed over the years.

Question 5

(i) Mention two advantages of using waterways. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is the most inexpensive means of transportation, especially for heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
2. It is an eco-friendly mode of transportation that consumes less energy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Waterways utilize natural tracks requiring no heavy capital construction costs for permanent way.
b) Mention cost-effectiveness and suitability for heavy freight.

(ii) Differentiate between national highway and state highway. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly based on administrative authority (Central vs State) and connectivity.
b) Presenting the answer in a comparative table ensures clarity.

(iii) Mention three benefits of Golden quadrilateral. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It provides fast transport networks connecting major metropolitan cities and ports.
2. It ensures smoother and faster movement of goods and people across the country.
3. It enables industrial development and job creation in smaller towns through improved market access.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Golden Quadrilateral is a prestigious highway network linking Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.
b) List economic, transport, and developmental benefits clearly.

(iv) What are the three disadvantages of using air transport? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Air transport is extremely costly with very high operational and freight charges.
2. It is prone to fatal accidents where even a small error can be catastrophic.
3. It has limited payload capacity for heavy bulk cargo and relies heavily on non-renewable petroleum fuels.

Teacher's Note:
a) Air transport is the fastest but most expensive mode of transport.
b) Mention high cost, weather vulnerability, or high energy consumption as key disadvantages.

Question 6

(i) Why is there a need for waste management in India? (Two points) [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Waste management reduces the adverse impact of waste on the environment, ecology, and human health.
2. It helps reduce hazardous materials in the environment, preventing the spread of infectious diseases and improving public health conditions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rapid urbanization and population growth in India make scientific waste management imperative.
b) Focus on environmental protection and disease prevention.

(ii) Segregation considered a safe method of waste disposal. Explain. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Segregation sorts wastes into specific categories like hazardous, biodegradable, and non-biodegradable, which prevents toxic substances from entering municipal sewage and water bodies, thereby safeguarding aquatic life and allowing authorized collectors to process hazardous waste safely.

Teacher's Note:
a) Segregation at source is the foundation of effective municipal solid waste management.
b) Explain how sorting protects water bodies and facilitates safe recycling or disposal.

(iii) Mention three ways that may be used in India to reduce waste. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Adopting the 3Rs principle of Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle as promoted by initiatives like the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.
2. Practicing composting in homes and gardens to convert food scraps and organic yard debris into nutrient-rich fertilizers.
3. Avoiding single-use plastics and non-biodegradable packaging materials in daily consumption.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sustainable waste reduction requires active citizen participation and policy support.
b) Mention practical household and community methods such as composting and minimizing plastics.

(iv) Mention three reasons as to why the dumping of waste may be harmful. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Leachate from dumped waste pollutes waterways, streams, rivers, and groundwater aquifers, making them unsafe for drinking and agriculture.
2. Decomposition of dumped organic waste produces harmful greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide and methane, contributing to global warming.
3. Open dumping sites serve as breeding grounds for disease-carrying vectors such as flies, mosquitoes, and rodents.

Teacher's Note:
a) Unscientific open dumping poses severe environmental and health hazards.
b) Cover water pollution, air/greenhouse gas emissions, and vector-borne disease propagation to earn full marks.