NEET Biology Body Fluids and Circulation MCQs Set 16

Practice MCQs for NEET Biology Body Fluids and Circulation

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Blood group antigens are:
(a) Found in Hb molecule
(b) Found in plasma protein
(c) Found on RBC
(d) None
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Found on RBC

Explanation:
1. A and B antigens (agglutinogens) are on the surface of red blood cells.

Teacher's Note:
1. Antibodies, not antigens, are in the plasma.

Question 2: The adult haemoglobin molecule has chains:
(a) 2 alpha, 2 beta
(b) 2 alpha, 2 gamma
(c) 2 alpha, 2 delta
(d) 4 alpha
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 2 alpha, 2 beta

Explanation:
1. HbA has two alpha and two beta polypeptide chains, each with a haem group.

Teacher's Note:
1. HbA2 has two alpha and two delta chains.

Question 3: Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) has chains:
(a) 2 alpha, 2 beta
(b) 2 alpha, 2 gamma
(c) 2 alpha, 2 delta
(d) 4 beta
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 2 alpha, 2 gamma

Explanation:
1. HbF has two alpha and two gamma chains and a higher oxygen affinity than HbA.

Teacher's Note:
1. This helps the foetus take oxygen from maternal blood.

Question 4: The plasma protein mainly responsible for the colloidal osmotic pressure of blood is:
(a) Globulin
(b) Albumin
(c) Fibrinogen
(d) Prothrombin
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Albumin

Explanation:
1. Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein and keeps the osmotic balance.

Teacher's Note:
1. Globulins serve in defence and fibrinogen in clotting.

Question 5: Mammalian RBCs are:
(a) Biconcave, circular, non-nucleated
(b) Biconcave, nucleated
(c) Oval, nucleated
(d) None
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Biconcave, circular, non-nucleated

Explanation:
1. Mammalian erythrocytes lose their nucleus and are biconcave discs, which increases surface area and the space for haemoglobin.

Teacher's Note:
1. Camels and llamas have oval enucleated RBCs.

Question 6: Which WBCs resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions?
(a) Lymphocytes
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Monocytes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Eosinophils

Explanation:
1. Eosinophils resist infections and are associated with allergic reactions.

Teacher's Note:
1. Basophils release histamine and heparin.

Question 7: Persons with ______ and ______ blood groups are called universal recipients and universal donors respectively.
(a) AB-, O+
(b) O+, AB-
(c) O-, AB+
(d) AB+, O-
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) AB+, O-

Explanation:
1. Group AB has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies and group O has no A or B antigens. The Rh negative O is the safest donor.

Teacher's Note:
1. Universal recipient AB, universal donor O.

Question 8: ABO blood grouping is based on:
(a) Surface antibodies on RBC
(b) Surface antigen on WBC
(c) Surface antigen on RBC
(d) Plasma antigens
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Surface antigen on RBC

Explanation:
1. The ABO system depends on the antigens A and B present on the red cell surface.

Teacher's Note:
1. Antibodies are in the plasma.

Question 9: Which leucocyte has a bean-shaped nucleus?
(a) Basophil
(b) Monocyte
(c) Neutrophil
(d) Lymphocyte
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Monocyte

Explanation:
1. Monocytes are the largest WBCs and have a kidney or bean-shaped nucleus.

Teacher's Note:
1. They become macrophages in tissues.

Question 10: The smallest blood element is the:
(a) RBC
(b) WBC
(c) Platelet
(d) None
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Platelet

Explanation:
1. Platelets are cell fragments, smaller than RBCs and WBCs.

Teacher's Note:
1. They arise from megakaryocytes of the bone marrow.

Question 11: Blood clotting requires:
(a) Na+ and K+
(b) Na+ and prothrombin
(c) Na+ and thromboplastin
(d) Ca2+ and thromboplastin
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Ca2+ and thromboplastin

Explanation:
1. Thromboplastin and calcium ions convert prothrombin to thrombin, which makes fibrin.

Teacher's Note:
1. Vitamin K is needed for synthesis of prothrombin.

Question 12: The red cell count is carried out by a:
(a) Haemocytometer
(b) Haemoglobinometer
(c) Electrocardiogram
(d) Sphygmomanometer
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Haemocytometer

Explanation:
1. A haemocytometer counts the number of blood cells in a measured volume of diluted blood.

Teacher's Note:
1. A sphygmomanometer measures blood pressure.

Question 13: The process by which blood cells are formed in the bone marrow is:
(a) Haemopoiesis
(b) Haemolysis
(c) Thrombopoiesis
(d) Erythroblastosis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Haemopoiesis

Explanation:
1. Haemopoiesis is the formation of blood cells from stem cells in the bone marrow.

Teacher's Note:
1. Erythropoiesis is the formation of RBCs.

Question 14: The largest leucocyte is the:
(a) Neutrophil
(b) Basophil
(c) Monocyte
(d) Lymphocyte
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Monocyte

Explanation:
1. Monocytes are the largest WBCs, 12 to 20 micrometres in diameter.

Teacher's Note:
1. Neutrophils are the most numerous.

Question 15: The haemoglobin content per 100 mL of blood in a normal adult is about:
(a) 15 gm
(b) 20 gm
(c) 10 gm
(d) 5 gm
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 15 gm

Explanation:
1. Normal blood has 12 to 16 g of Hb per 100 mL.

Teacher's Note:
1. Males have a slightly higher value than females.

Question 16: The 'micropolice' of blood is the:
(a) Neutrophil
(b) Basophil
(c) Eosinophil
(d) Lymphocyte
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Neutrophil

Explanation:
1. Neutrophils are the first phagocytic cells to reach infection sites.

Teacher's Note:
1. They form 60 to 65% of WBCs.

Question 17: Which of the following is present in RBCs in comparison to WBCs?
(a) Antigens (agglutinogens) on the surface
(b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Donnan's membrane equilibrium
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:
1. RBCs carry surface antigens and the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, and show Donnan equilibrium.

Teacher's Note:
1. These features support gas transport.

Question 18: The presence of RBCs in urine is called:
(a) Proteinuria
(b) Haematuria
(c) Alkaptonuria
(d) Uraemia
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Haematuria

Explanation:
1. Haematuria means blood in the urine.

Teacher's Note:
1. Proteinuria is the presence of protein in urine.

Question 19: Serum is:
(a) Blood minus blood cells
(b) Plasma minus fibrinogen
(c) Blood minus plasma
(d) Blood minus RBC
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Plasma minus fibrinogen

Explanation:
1. Serum is plasma from which fibrinogen and other clotting factors are removed after clotting.

Teacher's Note:
1. Serum cannot clot.

Question 20: Worn out RBCs are destroyed by:
(a) Kupffer's cells
(b) Bone cells
(c) Mast cells
(d) None
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Kupffer's cells

Explanation:
1. The macrophages (Kupffer cells) of the liver and spleen destroy old RBCs.

Teacher's Note:
1. The spleen is called the graveyard of RBCs.

Question 21: HbA2 is composed of:
(a) Alpha2 beta2
(b) Alpha2 gamma2
(c) Alpha2 delta2
(d) Alpha2 alpha2
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Alpha2 delta2

Explanation:
1. HbA2, a minor adult haemoglobin, has two alpha and two delta chains.

Teacher's Note:
1. About 2 to 3 percent of adult haemoglobin is HbA2.

Question 22: The first site of haemopoiesis in the embryo is the:
(a) Bone marrow
(b) Spleen
(c) Liver
(d) Yolk sac
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Yolk sac

Explanation:
1. Blood cells first form in the yolk sac, then in the liver and spleen and finally in the bone marrow.

Teacher's Note:
1. Adult haemopoiesis occurs in the red bone marrow.

Question 23: Which WBC has the maximum number of lobes in its nucleus?
(a) Neutrophil
(b) Acidophil
(c) Basophil
(d) Lymphocyte
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Neutrophil

Explanation:
1. The nucleus of a neutrophil has 3 to 5 lobes.

Teacher's Note:
1. The eosinophil nucleus is bilobed.

Question 24: A reduction in platelet number causes:
(a) Clotting disorder
(b) Immune disorder
(c) Digestive disorder
(d) Respiratory disorder
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Clotting disorder

Explanation:
1. Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) leads to excessive bleeding.

Teacher's Note:
1. Platelets release thromboplastin to start clotting.

Question 25: 100 mL of pure blood carries about:
(a) 1.34 mL O2
(b) 20 mL O2
(c) 15 mL O2
(d) 4 mL O2
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 20 mL O2

Explanation:
1. Each 100 mL of oxygenated blood carries about 20 mL of oxygen.

Teacher's Note:
1. Of this about 5 mL is delivered to tissues.

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Body Fluids and Circulation Objective Questions & Solutions for NEET Biology

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