CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Evolution

Please refer to CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Evolution. Download HOTS questions and answers for Class 12 Biology. Read CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs for Chapter 7 Evolution below and download in pdf. High Order Thinking Skills questions come in exams for Biology in Class 12 and if prepared properly can help you to score more marks. You can refer to more chapter wise Class 12 Biology HOTS Questions with solutions and also get latest topic wise important study material as per NCERT book for Class 12 Biology and all other subjects for free on Studiestoday designed as per latest CBSE, NCERT and KVS syllabus and pattern for Class 12

Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 Biology HOTS

Class 12 Biology students should refer to the following high order thinking skills questions with answers for Chapter 7 Evolution in Class 12. These HOTS questions with answers for Class 12 Biology will come in exams and help you to score good marks

HOTS Questions Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 Biology with Answers

Question. In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as
(a) adaptive radiation
(b) divergent evolution
(c) cyclical evolution
(d) convergent evolution
Answer : D

Question. A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following conditions will lead to adaptive radiation? 
(a) Area with large number of habitats having very low food supply
(b) Area with a single type of vacant habitat
(c) Area with many types of vacant habitats
(d) Area with many habitats occupied by a large number of species
Answer : C

Question. What is meant by the term ‘Darwin fitness’?
(a) Ability to survive and reproduce
(b) High aggressiveness
(c) Healthy appearance
(d) Physical strength
Answer : A

Question. Change in gene frequency of a population means
(a) evolution is in progress
(b) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not achieved
(c) there may be a selection, migration or mutation
(d) All of the above
Answer : D

Question. Hardy-Weinberg principle can be expressed as
(a) p2 − 2 pq − q2 = 1
(b) p2 + 2pq + q2 ≥ 1
(c) p2 + 2pq + q2 ≤ 1
(d) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Answer : D

Question. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population? 
(a) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(b) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(c) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
Answer : B

Question. Survival of the fittest is possible due to the
(a) overproduction
(b) favourable variations
(c) environmental changes
(d) inheritance of acquired characters
Answer : B

Question. Darwinian fitness can be estimated by
(a) how long different individual in a population survive
(b) number of offspring produced by different individuals in population
(c) individual have a large size in population
(d) species recover after mass extinction
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution?
(a) Genetic drift and mutation
(b) Adaptive radiation and homology
(c) Mutation and natural selection
(d) Branching descent and natural selection
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following situations would most likely result in the highest rate of natural selection?
(a) Reproduction by asexual method
(b) Low mutation is an stable environment
(c) Little competition
(d) Reproduction by sexual method
Answer : D

Question. Identify what the given diagram indicates?  (Image 57)
(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Divergent evolution
(c) Recapitulation
(d) Parallel evolution
Answer : B

Question. The classical example of adaptive radiation in development of new species is
(a) Darwin’s finches
(b) marsupials of Australia
(c) locomotion in mammals
(d) All of the above
Answer : D

Question. In the animals, the same structures developed along the different directions due to the adaptations to different needs. This is called
(a) convergent evolution
(b) divergent evolution
(c) disruptive evolution
(d) directional evolution
Answer : B

Question. Divergent evolution gives rise to
(a) homologous organs
(b) analogous organs
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer : A

Question. Example of convergent evolution is
(a) Darwin finches and marsupial mouse
(b) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf
(c) Placental wolf and Darwin finches
(d) Tasmanian wolf and marsupial mole
Answer : B

Question. According toDarwin, the organic evolution is due to the
(a) intraspecific competition 
(b) interspecific competition
(c) competition within closely related species
(d) reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
Answer : B

Question. Lamarck’s theory of evolution is also known as
(a) theory of use and disuse of organs
(b) theory of genetic characters
(c) theory of spontaneous characters
(d) theory of impose characters
Answer : A

Question. Hugo de Vries put forth his idea of mutation by his work on
(a) pea plant
(b) Drosophila
(c) evening primrose
(d) maize plant
Answer : C

Question. Australian marsupials are the example of
(a) homologous radiation
(b) analogous radiation
(c) adaptive radiation
(d) convergent radiation
Answer : C

Question. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, it is
(a) convergent evolution
(b) divergent evolution
(c) natural selection
(d) genetic drift
Answer : A

Ques. Species occurring in different geographical area are called as
(a) sympatric
(b) allopatric
(c) sibling
(d) neopatric. 
Answer: B

Ques. Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
(a) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
(b) Melanisation in peppered moth
(c) Absence of limbs in snakes
(d) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
Answer: B

Ques. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) tail is an essential organ
(c) mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters. 
Answer: D

Ques. Evolution is
(a) progressive development of a race
(b) history and development of race along with variations
(c) history of race
(d) development of race. 
Answer: B

Ques. “Continuity of germplasm” theory was given by
(a) De Vries
(b) Weismann
(c) Darwin
(d) Lamarck. 
Answer: B

Ques. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by
(a) Wallace
(b) Lamarck
(c) Darwin
(d) De Vries. 
Answer: B

Ques. ‘Origin of Species’ was written by
(a) Oparin
(b) Weismann
(c) Lamarck
(d) Darwin. 
Answer: D

Ques. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are
(a) small and directionless
(b) random and directional
(c) random and directionless
(d) small and directional. 
Answer: C

Ques. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
(a) multiple step mutations
(b) saltation
(c) phenotypic variations
(d) minor mutations. 
Answer: B

Ques. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
(a) Hugo de Vries who worked on evening primrose
(b) Gregor Mendel who worked on Pisum sativum
(c) Hardy-Weinberg who worked on allele frequencies in a population
(d) Charles Darwin who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage. 
Answer: A

Ques. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on
(a) Pisum sativum
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Oenothera lamarckiana
(d) Althea rosea. 
Answer: C

Ques. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?
(a) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
(b) 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
(c) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(d) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa) 
Answer: D

Ques. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?
(a) Cyclical selection
(b) Directional selection
(c) Stabilising selection
(d) Disruptive selection 
Answer: C

Ques. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents
(a) directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(b) disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(c) stabilising followed by disruptive as it stabilises the population to produce higher yielding cows
(d) stabilising selection as it stabilises this character in the population.
Answer: A

Ques. Genetic drift operates in
(a) small isolated population
(b) large isolated population
(c) non-reproductive population
(d) slow reproductive population.
Answer: A

Ques. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by
(a) p2
(b) 2pq
(c) pq
(d) q2. 
Answer: B

Ques. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.7.
Answer: C

Ques. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by
(a) lack of mutations
(b) lack of random mating
(c) random mating
(d) lack of migration. 
Answer: B

Ques. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as
(a) random mating
(b) genetic load
(c) genetic flow
(d) genetic drift.
Answer: D

Ques. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as
(a) migration
(b) natural selection
(c) genetic drift
(d) mutation.
Answer: C

I. Assertion and Reason
In each of the following questions, a statement of
Assertion (A) is given followed by corresponding statement of
Reason(R).Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true, but R is false
(d) If A is false, but R is true

Question. Assertion (A) Earth is about 15 billion years old.
Reason (R) Life appeared 500 million back after the formation of earth.
Answer : D

Question. Assertion (A) Ernst Haeckel supported the embryological similarities as an evidence of evolution.
Reason (R) The embryos of all vertebrates including humans develop a row of vestigial gill slits which are absent in adult vertebrates.
Answer : A

Question. Assertion (A) Natural selection is an outcome of the differences in survival and reproduction among individuals that show variations in one or more traits.
Reason (R) Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common. Less adaptive ones becomes less common or disappear.
Answer : A

Question. Assertion (A) Earliest organisms that appeared on the Earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
Reason (R) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Answer : B

Question. Assertion (A) Sudden inheritable changes take place in genome of an organism due to certain factors called mutations.
Reason (R) Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called the theory of continuity of germplasm.
Answer : C

Question. Assertion (A) Lichens are symbiotic relationships of algae and viruses.
Reason (R) These are sensitive to SO2 levels in the air.
Answer : D

Question. Assertion (A) Hugo de Vries said mutations cause speciation.
Reason (R) Mutations are slow changes.
Answer : C

Question. Assertion (A) Among the primates, chimpanzee is the closest relative of the present day humans.
Reason (R) The banding pattern in the autosome number 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee is remarkably similar.
Answer : A

Question. Assertion (A) Microspheres were aggregates of organic biomolecules surrounded by film of water molecule.
Reason (R) Coacervates lack definite membrane, but do exhibit some life like characters.
Answer : D

Question. Assertion (A) Whales and mammals share similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs.
Reason (R) These organisms suggest occurrence of divergent evolution.
Answer : A

Question. Assertion (A) Analogous structures are different in appearance and have same function.
Reason (R) Divergent evolution leads to analogy.
Answer : C

Question. Assertion (A) Theory of chemical evolution proposed that life came from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
Reason (R) Primitive earth conditions led to the production of organic molecules.
Answer : A

Question. Assertion (A) The theory of special creation states that God created life by his divine act of creation.
Reason (R) Louis Pasteur rejected the theory of spontaneous generation.
Answer : B

Question. Assertion (A) Lichens act as pollution indicators.
Reason (R) These do not grow in areas that are polluted.
Answer : A

Question. Assertion (A) The introduction of new alleles into the local gene pool by interbreeding of migrating individuals with members of local population is called gene migration.
Reason (R) If gene migration happens multiple times, it is called gene recombination.
Answer : C

 

II. Statement Based Questions

Question. Which of the following statements regarding the evolution of plants and animals are correct?
I. Amphibians evolved into reptiles.
II. Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water. This was about 350 million years ago.
III. Giant ferns fell to form coal deposits slowly.
IV. About 65 million years ago dinosaurs died out.
V. Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between birds and reptiles.
The correct combination is
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) V and I
(d) I, II, III, IV and V
Answer : D

Question. Mark the correct statements.
I. Karl Ernst von Baer noted that embryo never pass through adult stages of other animals and thus
discarded Ernst Haeckel’s embryological support for evolution.
II. Homology in vertebrate brain indicates common ancestry.
III. Theory of acquired character was given by de Vries.
IV. After industrialisation, the white moth population decreased due to predators.
The correct option is
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the theory of natural selection?
(a) It was the first theory of organic evolution
(b) It does explain information derived from fossils
(c) It has failed to explain the origin of variations
(d) It has succesfully explained concept of speciation
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following statements would Darwinism most likely disagree with?
(a) Individuals within a population vary in the characteristics they possess
(b) Evolution is best viewed as a purpose less and nondirectional change over time
(c) Natural selection is the mechanism by which biological evolution takes place
(d) The fossil record supports the view that biological evolution has occurred
Answer : B

Question. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) In natural selection, heritable variations enable better survival
(b) Variations due to gene flow changes allele frequency in future generation
(c) Gene flow occurs due to multiple gene migration
(d) None of the above
Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following statements is/are correct about Australopithecus?
(a) They essentially ate fruits
(b) They hunted with stone weapons
(c) They were transitional stage between ape and humans
(d) All of the above
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life? 
I. Formation of protobionts.
II. Synthesis of organic monomers.
III. Synthesis of organic polymers.
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, III, II and IV
(c) II, III, I and IV
(d) II, III, IV and I
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following statements are correct about the characteristics of protobionts, like microspheres as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
I. They were able to reproduce.
II. They could separate the combinations of molecules from the surroundings.
III. They were partially isolated from the surroundings.
IV. They could maintain an internal environment absolutely.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements stands in favour of abiogenesis?
I. Spontaneous generation.
II. Origin of viruses and microbes.
III. Origin of life from living organisms.
IV. Origin of life from non-living matter.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) Only IV
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements are the correct pair of homologous organs?
I. Hands of manand wings of bat.
II. Wings of bat and wings of cockroach.
III. Wings of bird and wings of butterfly.
IV. Fins of fish and forelimbs of horse.
V. Forearm of human and forelimbs of horse. Choose the correct option
(a) I and II
(b) I and V
(c) III and IV
(d) IV and V
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Wings of insects and birds are homologous organ.
II. Wings of bats and birds are homologous organ.
III. Wings of insects and bats are analogous.
IV. Wings of insects and birds are analogous.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements about orgin of life is incorrect?
(a) The universe is almost 20 billion years old
(b) Big Bang theory explained that universe originated by a huge explosion
(c) Present day galaxies are formed by the condensation of hydrogen and helium under gravitational pull
(d) None of the above
Answer : D

Question. Identify the correct statement.
(a) Earth was formed about 4.5 billion years ago
(b) Early earth had no atmosphere
(c) The temperature of universe came down due to its expansion
(d) All of the above
Answer : D

Question. Select the incorrect statements.
I. Natural selection is essential for evolution.
II. Natural selection does not include variations.
III. Concept of natural selection was given by Hugo de Vries.
IV. Mutation is a sudden inheritable change.
V. Synthetic theory is also called Neo-Darwinism theory of evolution.
The correct combination is
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) III, IV and V
(d) II and III
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Survival of the fittest is based upon the characteristics that are inherited.
II. Darwin’s variations are small and directional.
III. The fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt.
IV. Genetic drift is operate in small populations.
V. Genetic drift operates in large populations.
VI. Presence of genetic drift upsets the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) IV, V, VI and II
(c) I, II, III, V and VI
(d) I, II, III, IV and VI
Answer : D

Question. True statements regarding the genetic drift is/are I. It mostly occurs in smaller populations.
II. Certain alleles can be lost forever because of genetic drift.
III. Founder effects and bottle neck effects are caused by genetic drift.
IV. Mutations are primarily responsible for genetic drift.
The correct combination showing true statements is
(a) Only I
(b) III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) All except IV
Answer : D

Question. Choose the incorrect statements.
I. The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution can be seen in the phenomenon of natural selection.
II. The rate of appearance of new forms is not linked to the evolution.
III. Adaptive ability is a complete evolution.
IV. Mutations are random and directionless.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I and IV
Answer : B

Question. When a species gets separated geographically, it evolves separately? Which of the following conditions would determine whether they are now different species?
I. They fail to interbreed.
II. They failed to give fertile offspring.
III. They have different coloured body.
IV. They appear morphologically slightly different.
Choose the correct combination from given options.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
Answer : A

Question. Choose the correct statements with reference to organic evolution. 
I. Flippers of whale and wings of bat exhibit analogy.
II. Wings of butterfly and wings of bird exhibit homology.
III. Organs with dissimilar structure are called analogous organs.
IV. Organs with similar structure and origin are called homologous organs.
(a) I and IV
(b) I and III
(c) III and IV
(d) II and IV
Answer : C

Important Questions for NCERT Class 12 Biology Evolution

Q.1. Rearrange the following statements to explain the formation of atmosphere on earth
i) The lighter hydrogen gas escaped from the surface while oxygen combined with methane , ammonia etc to form water and carbondioxide etc.
ii) Earth cooled and water vapour fell as rain
iii) Water vapour, methane, ammonia and carbondioxide were released from molten mass.
iv) UV rays from the sun broke up water into hydrogen and oxygen.
 
Ans1. (iii),(iv),(i),(ii)
 
Q.2. Name the theory of origin based on the following statement;
i. The supernatural being created the earth, light, plants, animals.
ii. Unit of life called spores transferred to different planets including earth.
iii. Life arose from decaying matter like straw.
iv. First form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
v. The first form of life arose slowly from non-living molecules involving evolutionary forces.
 
Ans2. (i) Theory of special creation
         (ii) Theory of Pansermia.
         (iii)Theory of spontaneous Generation
         (iv)Oparin & Haldane theory of biochemical creation or chemical Evolution.
         (v) Biogenesis
 
Q.3. Stanley Miller & Urey experimentally proved the chemical evolution of life by creating condition similar to the primitive atmosphere, in the laboratory. Name the gases filled by them in the flask .In what form was the energy supplied for the chemical reaction to occur? For how long the experiments run continuously?
 
Ans3. (i) CH4 , H2, NH3 & water vapours at 800’c.
         (ii) Electric discharge in closed flask containing gases (i.e. CH4 , H2, NH3 & water vapours)
         (iii) Seven days.
 
Q.4. Charles Darwin during a Sea voyage round the world in a sail ship (H.M.S Beagle), concluded that there has been gradual evolution of life forms .What is his theory practically known as? Write the main points of his theory .Name a scientist who arrived to similar conclusion like that of Charles Darwin?
 
Ans4. i) Theory of Natural Selection
        ii) Main points of the theory i.e. built in variation in characters, over reproduction, struggle for existence, survival of the fittest through natural selection as a mechanism of evolution.
        iii) Alfred Wallace, a Naturalist.
 
Q.5. What is indicated by a cross section of earth’s crust? Name the evolutionary evidence in which different aged rock sediments containing fossil of life form are examined?
 
Ans5. (i) Arrangement of sediments as layers one over the other during the long history of earth.
         (ii) Pale-ontological evidence.
 
Q.6. Whales, bats, cheetah & humans shares similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs what do we call these structures .How these structures are pointing towards divergent evolution? Give an example from plants which represent the same pattern?
 
Ans6. Homologous organs. Same structures developed along different directions due to Adaptations to different needs. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita.
 
Q.7. The structures which are not anatomatically similar but are performing similar function are called analogous structure. Give any two example of analogy. Why analogous structure are said to be a result of convergent evolution?
 
Ans7. (1) Sweet potato (root modification) and potato(stem modification)-both for storage of food
         (2) Eye of the octopus & of mammals
         (3) Flippers of penguin and dolphins
They are not anatomically dissimilar structures but are similar functions
 
Q.8. Evolution is the stochastic process based on chance events in nature & chance mutation in the organism. Explain it with the help of a suitable example (industrial melanism). State any other example from every day experience.
 
Ans8. Details about the decrease in number of white winged moths due to industrialization and increase in no. of dark winged or melanised moths.
Excess use of herbicides, pesticides etc. has resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale
 
Q.9. Why small black birds later called Darwin Finches found in Galapagos Islands amazed Darwin.Which evolutionary phenomenon is represented by Darwin finches. Give any other example of this phenomenon. When is this phenomenon indicative ofconvergent evolution?
 
Ans9. From the original seed eating variety, many other forms with altered beaks arose, enabling
Them to become insectivorous species & vegetarian finches.
Adaptive radiation.
Australian marsupials
More than one adaptive radiation appears to have occurred in an isolated geographical area (representing a habitat).
 
Q.10. Is evolution a process or the result of a process? Name the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of evolution.
 
Ans.10. When we describe the story of this world, evolution is described as a process. If we describe the story of life on earth, we treat evolution as a consequence of a process called natural selection. Hence till the day it is not clear.
 
Q11. “Giraffes who in an attempt to forage leave on tall trees had to adopt by elongation of their necks.” Make use of this statement to enumerate the main points of Lamark’s theory and Darwin’s theory of Natural selection.
 
Ans.11. In order to eat leaves of tall trees, Giraffe had to adapt by stretching (elongation) of their neck i.e. evolution is driven by use & disuse of organs (Lamarckism) main points of theory to be incorporated.
Variant Giraffes with an ability to elongate the neck were already there in the crowd of giraffes & linking of it to explain main points of Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
 
Q.12. “Allele frequencies in a population are stable and are constant from generation to generations”. Who proposed this principle .State the factors that are known to affect it .What do you understand by founder effect. How these five factors mentioned can cause a change in a frequency of alleles of a population?
 
Ans.12. Hardy –Weinberg principle.
Gene migration, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination & natural selection.
Definitions of founder effect.
Variation due to mutation or recombination during gametogenesis or due to gene flow or genetic drift results in changed frequency of genes & alleles in future generation. Coupled to enhanced reproductive success, natural selection makes it look like different population
 
Q.13. Depending upon the trait favoured natural selection can bring about three different effects. Depict the effects with the help of diagram.
 
Ans.13. Diagrammatic representation of stabilizing, directional and disruption factors.(Fig 7.8).
 
14. Complete the following statement by filling blanks 1 to 5.
(i) The first circular form of life multi cellular organisms __(1)__ around 500 million years ago jawless fish around 350 million years ago
(ii) __(2)__ were the ancestors of the modern day frogs and salamanders.
(iii)Land reptiles i.e. __(3)__ suddenly disappeared from the earth about 65 million years ago. This called __(4)__ .
(iv) Some of the land reptiles moved back into water to evolve into __(5)_
 
Ans14. (i) Invertebrates
     (ii) Coelacanth or lobefins
     (iii) Dinosaurs
     (iv) Mass extinction
    (v) Ichthyosaurs.
_ .
Q.15. Rearrange the following to depict the correct sequence of the evolutionary record of man. Homo habilis , Ramapithecus, Homosapiens, Australopithecus, Homo erectus. Differentiate between Homo habilis and Homo erectus.
 
Ans.15. Ramapithecus, Australopithecus, Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens.
Brain capacity of Homo habilis was between 650-800cc, where as brain capacity of homo erectus were 900 cc. Homo habilis did not eat meat whereas Homo erectus ate meat.
 
16. Classify the following as examples of homology and analogy:
i. Hearts of fish and crocodile.
ii. Eyes of octopus and mammals.
iii. Thorns of bougainvillea and spines of Opuntia.
iv. Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbits
 
Ans.16. (i)Homologous organs.
     (ii) Analogous organs.
     (iii) Analogous organs.
     (iv) Homologous organs.
 
Q.17. When and where did Neanderthal man live? What was his brain capacity? Mention the advancements he showed over Homo erectus?
 
Ans17. Near east and central Asia between 1, 00,000 - 40,000 years back. Brain capacity is around 1400 cc. , buried their dead & used hides to protect their body.

 

Question. Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird? 
(a) Wing of a moth
(b) Hindlimb of rabbit
(c) Flipper of whale
(d) Dorsal fin of a shark
Answer : C

Question. Identify what is indicated in the given diagram? (Image 56)
I. Recombination
II. Adaptive radiation
III. Ecological succession
IV. Different species of penguins by mutation
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Only IV
(d) Only II
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following is not an examples of adaptive radiation?
(a) Wombat, numbat, flying phalanger
(b) Darwin’s finches
(c) Different mammals in other parts of world
(d) Lemur and spotted cuscus
Answer : D

Question. Who proposed that long neck of giraffes evolved due to foraging of leaves on tall trees?
(a) Lamarck
(b) Darwin
(c) Malthus
(d) Aristotle
Answer : A

Question. What was the Lamarck’s explanation for long necked giraffes?
(a) Stretching of necks over many generations
(b) Short neck suddenly changed into long one
(c) Natural selection
(d) Mutation
Answer : A

Question. Which of the following differences between Lamarckism and Darwinism is incorrect? (Image 76)
Answer : B

Question. Who proposed the concept of saltation?
(a) Darwin
(b) Mendel
(c) de Vries
(d) Thomas Malthus
Answer : C

Question. What does the term ‘Saltation’ imply?
(a) Excess of species at a given area
(b) Reduced number of species due to saline environment
(c) Occurrence of variations gradually, step by step
(d) Single step large mutations
Answer : D

Question. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are 
(a) random and directionless
(b) small and directional
(c) small and directionless
(d) random and directional
Answer : A

Question. Hardy-Weinberg principle is the
(a) stable allele frequency in a population
(b) genetic structure of an evolving population
(c) varying allele frequency in a population
(d) phenotypic structure of a non-evolving population
Answer : A

Question. Genetic equilibrium refers to the phenomenon in which
(a) the trait remains constant in a population
(b) the total genes remain constant in a population
(c) the total genes keeps on varying in a population
(d) traits keeps on varying in a population
Answer : B 

Question. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population? 
(a) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(b) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(c) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
Answer : B

Question. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent stages is
(a) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(b) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(c) Pithecanthropus pekinensis → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Pithecanthropus pekinensis → Homo erectus
Answer : A

Question. The diagram given here shows the skull of two different mammals. Choose the most appropriate difference between A and B. (Image 128)
(a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
(b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B
(c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape
(d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following conditions represents the extent of evolutionary change in Hardy-Weinberg principle?
(a) Value of ( p + q )2
(b) Difference between measured value and expected value
(c) Sum of measured value and expected value
(d) This principle cannot predict the extent of evolutionary change
Answer : B

Question. Genetic drift operates in 
(a) small isolated population
(b) large isolated population
(c) non-reproductive population
(d) slow reproductive population
Answer : A

Question. ‘XX’ is a type of selection process in evolution that promotes population changes in one particular direction. ‘XX’ favours small or large sized individuals mean size of population changes. Identify ‘XX’.
(a) Stabilising selection
(b) Directional selection
(c) Disruptive selection
(d) None of the above
Answer : B

Question. ‘PP’ is a type of selection that favours both small sized and large-sized individuals. ‘PP’ eliminates most of the members with mean expression, so as to produce two peaks in the distribution of the tract that many leads to the development of two different populations. Identify ‘PP’.
(a) Disruptive selection
(b) Stabilising selection
(c) Directional selection
(d) None of these
Answer : A

Question. Name the type of natural selection depicted in the given diagram (type I, type II and type III). (Image 93)
Answer : C

Question. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding high milk output represents 
(a) stabilising selection as it stabilises this character in the population
(b) directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(c) disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(d) stabilising followed by disruptive as stabilises the population of produce higher yielding cows
Answer : B

Question. In a large randomly mating population, only one person in 10,000 is an albino. What will be the frequency of carrier person of albinism?
(a) 1 in 100
(b) 99 in 10,000
(c) 2 in 10,000
(d) 1 in 50
Answer : C

Question. Allopatric speciation occurs when
(a) genetically related populations inhabit widely separated geographical area
(b) genetically unrelated populations inhabit widely separated geographical area
(c) genetically related populations inhabit the same geographical area
(d) genetically unrelated populations inhabit the same geographical area
Answer : A

Question. Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Invertebrates were formed and active – By 500 mya
(b) Seaweeds existed – Around 320 mya
(c) First organisms that invaded land – Single-celled animals
(d) Fish with stout and strong fins – Around 350 mya
Answer : C

Question. Name the animal that evolved into the first probable amphibians and lived on both land and water.
(a) Whale
(b) Coelacanth (lobefins)
(c) Amphioxus
(d) Balanoglossus
Answer : B

Question. There was no life in
(a) Cenozoic era
(b) Mesozoic era
(c) Palaeozoic era
(d) Azoic era
Answer : D

Question. Which period in geological time scale is considered the golden era of fish?
(a) Mississippian
(b) Silurian
(c) Devonian
(d) Jurassic
Answer : C

Question. Giant dinosaurs and reptiles predominated during the Jurassic period. This period was also marked for the evolution of higher insects and angiosperms, conifers, cycads, etc. Jurassic period belongs to which era?
(a) Cenozoic
(b) Palaeozoic
(c) Mesozoic
(d) Proterozoic
Answer : C

Question. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by
(a) p2
(b) 2 pq
(c) pq
(d) q2
Answer : B

Question. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by 
(a) random mating
(b) lack of migration
(c) lack of mutations
(d) lack of random mating
Answer : D

Question.  Identify the phenomenon in which a new set of population is formed from the set of existing population due to the random excessive change in the allele frequency.
(a) Founder effect
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Bottle-neck effect
(d) All of these
Answer : A

Ques. Genetic variation in a population arises due to
(a) recombination only
(b) mutation as well as recombination
(c) reproductive isolation and selection
(d) mutations only. 
Answer: B

Ques. At a particular locus, frequency of A allele is 0.6 and that of a is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
(a) 0.36
(b) 0.16
(c) 0.24
(d) 0.48
Answer: D

Ques. Which of the following is not true for a species?
(a) Members of a species can interbreed.
(b) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
(c) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
(d) Variations occur among members of a species.
Answer: B

Ques. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from
(a) highly genetically variable individuals
(b) interbreeding within this population
(c) constant low mutation rate
(d) large population size. 
Answer: B

Ques. In which condition, the gene ratio remains constant for any species population ?
(a) Sexual selection
(b) Random mating
(c) Mutation
(d) Gene flow 
Answer: B

Ques. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive than the parental generation due to
(a) natural selection
(b) mutation
(c) genetic drift
(d) adaptation.
Answer: B

Ques. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
(a) Lamarck’s principle
(b) Mendelian principles
(c) Biogenetic law
(d) Hardy-Weinberg law 
Answer: C

Ques. Genetic drift operates only in
(a) larger populations
(b) Mendelian populations
(c) island populations
(d) smaller populations. 
Answer: D

Ques. Genetic drift is change of
(a) gene frequency in same generation
(b) appearance of recessive genes
(c) gene frequency from one generation to next
(d) none of these. 
Answer: D

Ques. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological eras?
(a) Cenozoic
(b) Jurassic
(c) Mesozoic
(d) Devonian
Answer: B

Ques. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by
(a) flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
(b) gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
(c) radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles
(d) dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear.
Answer: B

Ques. Diversification in plant life appeared
(a) due to long periods of evolutionary changes
(b) due to abrupt mutations
(c) suddenly on earth
(d) by seed dispersal. 
Answer: A

Ques. In which era reptiles were dominant ?
(a) Coenozoic era
(b) Mesozoic era
(c) Palaeozoic era
(d) Archaeozoic era
Answer: B

Ques. Which statement is correct about centre of origin of plants?
(a) More diversity in improved variety
(b) Frequency of dominant gene is more
(c) Climatic condition more favourable
(d) None of these 
Answer: A

Ques. Which period is dubbed as the age of prokaryotic microbes?
(a) Precambrian
(b) Phanerozoic
(c) Archean
(d) Proterozoic 
Answer: A

Ques. Correct order is
(a) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic
(b) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic
(c) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
(d) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic.
Answer: C

Ques. Match the hominids with their correct brain size.
(A) Homo habilis (i) 900cc
(B) Homo (ii) 1350 cc neanderthalensis
(C) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800cc
(D) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400cc
Select the correct option.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 
Answer: D

Ques. Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of men ?
(a) Agriculture came around 50,000 years back.
(b) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago, walked like men.
(c) Homo habilis probably ate meat.
(d) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 1,00,000 and 40,000 years back.
Answer: D

Ques. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
(a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(b) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis →Australopithecus → Homo erectus 
(d) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus 
Answer: B

Ques. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
(a) Homo neanderthalensis
(b) Homo habilis
(c) Homo erectus
(d) Homo sapiens 
Answer: B

Q1 What do these pictures (a) and (b) illustrate with reference to evolution?
CBSE_Class_12_Biology_Evolution_Set_B_1
 
Ans1 (a) Dark and grey coloured moths on the bark of a tree in an unpolluted area.
        (b) Dark and grey coloured moths on the bark of a tree in a polluted area.
Above picture shows industrial melanism. Prior to industrial revolution England had plenty of lichen flora on the bark of trees giving light coloured background suitable for white coloured moth but dark coloured moths were easily predated by the predators declining their numbers. After industrial revolution lichens disappeared from the tree barks which caused easy predation of white coloured moths than dark coloured declining the numbers of white moth in course of time.
 
Q2 On the basis of diagram given below explain the different ways of natural selection.
CBSE_Class_12_Biology_Evolution_Set_B_2
Ans2 Diagram explains three ways of natural selections which are-
(a) Stabilising selection
(b) Directional selection
(c) Disruptive selection.
 
Q3 Define the terms-1.Germplasm 2.Branching descent.
 
Ans3 1. Germplasm - Protoplasm contained inside the germ cells that is transmitted from one generation to other is called germplasm.
        2. Branching descent-It the formation of different types of species from a common ancestor due to variations and adaptations to varying ecological niches.
 
Q4 Write the formula to calculate allele frequency in future generations according to Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium.
 
Ans4      (p + q)2 =p2+2pq+q2=1
 
Q5 Give a comparison of the skulls of adult modern human being, baby chimpanzee and adult chimpanzee.
 
Ans.5 The skull of a baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull than adult chimpanzee skull.
CBSE_Class_12_Biology_Evolution_Set_B_3
Q6 Give a flow chart to show the different divisions of geological time scale.
 
CBSE_Class_12_Biology_Evolution_Set_B_4
Note-Coenozoic era is divided in to two periods which are Tertiary and Quaternary and these are
further divided into seven Epochs-1.Recent(Holozoic )1-0.6mya
2.Pleistocene              0.6-2.0mya
3.Pliocene                  2-13mya
4.Miocene                  13-26mya
5.Eocene                   38-54mya
6.Palaeocene             54-65mya
 
 
Important Questions for NCERT Class 12 Biology Evolution

 

 

 

Q.1) Study the figures (a) and (b) given below and answer the question given after the graph 3
CBSE_Class_12_Biology_Evolution_1

 

i) Under the influence of which type of natural selection would graph (a) become like graph (b) 3

 

ii) What could be the likely reasons of new variations arising in the population?

 

iii) Who suggested natural selection as a mechanism of evolution?
 
Ans1) i) Average single - stabilizing selection
 
ii) Directional selection
 
iii) Darwin

 

Q.2) In England, after industrialization it was observed that white winged moth did not survive. 3

 

i) What you think the cause may be?

 

ii) What was the change and why it has happened?

 

iii) Which organism is known as natural indicator to air pollution?
 
Ans 2) i)White winged moths disappeared as they were eaten up by predator.
 
ii) This change was due to darkening of trees bark on which moth lived due to industrial pollution. Moths could not camouflage and are thus eaten up by predators.
 
iii) Lichens

 

Q.3) Study the following pairs of organs and identify them as homologous or analogous organs: 3

 

i) Thorns of Bougainvillea and cucurbit tendrils.

 

ii) Fore legs of horse and arms of man

 

iii) Wings of bat and butterfly

 

iv) Flipper of whale and fins of fish

 

v) Trunk of elephant and human nose.
 
Ans 3) i) Homologous
 
ii) Homologous
 
iii) Analogous
 
iv) Analagous
 
v) Homologous

 

Q.4) Complete both columns representing evolutionary history of vertebrates, through geological periods. 3
CBSE_Class_12_Biology_Evolution_2
Ans.4)Vertebrates Geological Periods
 
Therapsidus Carboniferous
 
Dinosaurs
- (Extinct)
 
Q.5) Fill up the missing sequence in the evolution of man
CBSE_Class_12_Biology_Evolution_3
Ans5) a) Dryopithecus  b)  Australopithecus   c) Home erectus
 
Q.6) Trace the evolutionary stages of any one bird or animal using various resources such as internet, library etc. 2
 
Ans6)Evolution of beaks of finches that Darwin found.Refer NCERT text book page
 
Q.7) Sometimes the change in allele frequency is so different in the new sample of population that they become a different species. State the factors known to affect Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. 2
 
Ans7) Five factors are known to affect Hardy- Weinberg's equilibrium
 
a) Gene migration/ gene flow
 
b) Genetic drift
 
c) Mutation
 
d) Genetic Recombination
 
Q.8). Can we call the human evolution as an example of adaptive radiation? 
 
 
 
Important Questions for NCERT Class 12 Biology Evolution
 

Ques. Study of fossils is
(a) palaeontology (b) herpetology
(c) saurology (d) organic evolution.

Answer: A

 

Ques. Parallelism is
(a) adaptive divergence
(b) adaptive divergence of widely separated species
(c) adaptive convergence of widely different species
(d) adaptive convergence of closely related groups.

Answer: D

 

Ques. Basic principles of embryonic development were pronounced by
(a) von Baer (b) Weismann
(c) Haeckel (d) Morgan.

Answer: A

 

Ques. The finch species of Galapagos islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a finch food?
(a) Carrion (b) Insects
(c) Tree buds (d) Seeds

Answer: A

 

Ques. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as
(a) adaptive radiation (b) natural selection
(c) migration (d) divergent evolution.

Answer: A

 

Ques. Darwin’s finches are a good example of
(a) industrial melanism (b) connecting link
(c) adaptive radiation (d) convergent evolution.

Answer: C

 

Ques. The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of
(a) evolution due to mutation
(b) retrogressive evolution
(c) biogeographical evolution
(d) special creation. 

Answer: C

 

Ques. Adaptive radiation refers to
(a) evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(b) migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(d) adaptations due to geographical isolation.

Answer: A

 

Ques. Which evidence of evolution is related to Darwin’s finches?
(a) Evidences from biogeographical distribution
(b) Evidences from comparative anatomy
(c) Evidences from embryology
(d) Evidences from paleontology 

Answer: A

 

Ques. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
(a) intraspecific competition
(b) interspecific competition
(c) origin of species by natural selection
(d) intraspecific variations. 

Answer: C

 

Ques. Theory of Natural Selection dwells on
(a) role of environment in evolution
(b) natural selection acting on favourable variations
(c) changes in gene complex resulting in heritable variations
(d) none of these. 

Answer: C

 

Ques. Humming birds and Hawk illustrate
(a) convergent evolution (b) homology
(c) adaptive radiation (d) parallel evolution.

Answer: C

 

Ques. Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(a) De Vries - Natural selection
(b) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis
(c) Weismann - Theory of continuity of germplasm
(d) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired characters 

Answer: C

 

Ques. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals
(b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by cloning
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation 

Answer: C

 

Ques. Darwin in his “Natural Selection Theory” did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution ?
(a) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(b) Survival of the fittest
(c) Struggle for existence
(d) Discontinuous variations 

Answer: D

 

Ques. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilised to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N.sylvestris and N.tabacum to be separate species ?
(a) They cannot interbreed in nature.
(b) They are reproductively distinct.
(c) They are physiologically distinct.
(d) They are morphologically distinct. 

Answer: A

 

Ques. Which of the following is most important for speciation ?
(a) Seasonal isolation
(b) Reproductive isolation
(c) Behavioural isolation
(d) Tropical isolation 

Answer: B

 

Ques. Some bacteria are able to grow in streptomycin containing medium due to
(a) natural selection
(b) induced mutation
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) genetic drift. 

Answer: A

 

Ques. Reason of diversity in living being is
(a) mutation
(b) long term evolutionary change
(c) gradual change
(d) short term evolutionary change.

Answer: B

 

Ques. Which is the most important factor for continuity of a species from evolutionary point of view?
(a) Replication of genetic material
(b) Formation of gametes
(c) Synthesis of proteins
(d) None of these 

Answer: A

 

Chapter 01 Reproduction in Organisms
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Reproduction In Organisms
Chapter 02 Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants
Chapter 03 Human Reproduction
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Human Reproduction
Chapter 04 Reproductive Health
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Reproductive Health
Chapter 05 Principles of Inheritance and Variation
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Principles Of Inheritance And Variation
Chapter 06 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Chapter 08 Human Health and Disease
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Human Health and Disease
Chapter 09 Strategies for Enhancement In Food Production
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Strategies For Enhancement In food Production
Chapter 10 Microbes In Human Welfare
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Microbes In Human Welfare
Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Biotechnology Principles and Processes
Chapter 12 Biotechnology and Its Application
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Biotechnology And Its Applications
Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Organism And Population
Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Biodiversity And Conservation
Chapter 16 Environmental Issues
CBSE Class 12 Biology HOTs Environmental Issues

More Study Material

CBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution HOTS

We hope students liked the above HOTS for Chapter 7 Evolution designed as per the latest syllabus for Class 12 Biology released by CBSE. Students of Class 12 should download the High Order Thinking Skills Questions and Answers in Pdf format and practice the questions and solutions given in above Class 12 Biology  HOTS Questions on daily basis. All latest HOTS with answers have been developed for Biology by referring to the most important and regularly asked topics that the students should learn and practice to get better score in school tests and examinations. Studiestoday is the best portal for Class 12 students to get all latest study material free of cost.

HOTS for Biology CBSE Class 12 Chapter 7 Evolution

Expert teachers of studiestoday have referred to NCERT book for Class 12 Biology to develop the Biology Class 12 HOTS. If you download HOTS with answers for the above chapter daily, you will get higher and better marks in Class 12 test and exams in the current year as you will be able to have stronger understanding of all concepts. Daily High Order Thinking Skills questions practice of Biology and its study material will help students to have stronger understanding of all concepts and also make them expert on all critical topics. You can easily download and save all HOTS for Class 12 Biology also from www.studiestoday.com without paying anything in Pdf format. After solving the questions given in the HOTS which have been developed as per latest course books also refer to the NCERT solutions for Class 12 Biology designed by our teachers

Chapter 7 Evolution HOTS Biology CBSE Class 12

All HOTS given above for Class 12 Biology have been made as per the latest syllabus and books issued for the current academic year. The students of Class 12 can refer to the answers which have been also provided by our teachers for all HOTS of Biology so that you are able to solve the questions and then compare your answers with the solutions provided by us. We have also provided lot of MCQ questions for Class 12 Biology in the HOTS so that you can solve questions relating to all topics given in each chapter. All study material for Class 12 Biology students have been given on studiestoday.

Chapter 7 Evolution CBSE Class 12 HOTS Biology

Regular HOTS practice helps to gain more practice in solving questions to obtain a more comprehensive understanding of Chapter 7 Evolution concepts. HOTS play an important role in developing an understanding of Chapter 7 Evolution in CBSE Class 12. Students can download and save or print all the HOTS, printable assignments, and practice sheets of the above chapter in Class 12 Biology in Pdf format from studiestoday. You can print or read them online on your computer or mobile or any other device. After solving these you should also refer to Class 12 Biology MCQ Test for the same chapter

CBSE HOTS Biology Class 12 Chapter 7 Evolution

CBSE Class 12 Biology best textbooks have been used for writing the problems given in the above HOTS. If you have tests coming up then you should revise all concepts relating to Chapter 7 Evolution and then take out print of the above HOTS and attempt all problems. We have also provided a lot of other HOTS for Class 12 Biology which you can use to further make yourself better in Biology.

Where can I download latest CBSE HOTS for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution

You can download the CBSE HOTS for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution for latest session from StudiesToday.com

Can I download the HOTS of Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 Biology in Pdf

Yes, you can click on the link above and download topic wise HOTS Questions Pdfs for Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 for Biology

Are the Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution HOTS available for the latest session

Yes, the HOTS issued by CBSE for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution have been made available here for latest academic session

How can I download the Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution HOTS

You can easily access the link above and download the Class 12 HOTS Biology Chapter 7 Evolution for each topic

Is there any charge for the HOTS with solutions for Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 Biology

There is no charge for the HOTS and their answers for Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 CBSE Biology you can download everything free

What does HOTS stand for in Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution

HOTS stands for "Higher Order Thinking Skills" in Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 Biology. It refers to questions that require critical thinking, analysis, and application of knowledge

How can I improve my HOTS in Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution

Regular revision of HOTS given on studiestoday for Class 12 subject Biology Chapter 7 Evolution can help you to score better marks in exams

Are HOTS questions important for Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 Biology exams

Yes, HOTS questions are important for Chapter 7 Evolution Class 12 Biology exams as it helps to assess your ability to think critically, apply concepts, and display understanding of the subject.